1

Nerst formulated which of the following laws?

A

Third Law of Thermodynamics

B

First Law of Thermodynamics

C

Second Law of Thermodynamics

D

All of the above

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: The third law of thermodynamics, formulated by German physicist Walther Nernst, states that as the temperature of a system approaches absolute zero, the entropy of the system approaches a minimum value. In other words, it's impossible to reach absolute zero temperature through any finite number of processes.

2

What do we increase when we change a feeble sound to a loud sound?

A

Intensity

B

Frequency

C

Wavelength

D

Amplitude

E

Answer

D

Instruction

Explanation: When a sound is feeble, it means that the amplitude of the sound wave is relatively small, resulting in a soft or quiet sound. Conversely, when we make the sound loud, we increase its amplitude, causing the air particles to move more vigorously and creating a louder sound. So, increasing the amplitude of a sound wave makes it louder.

3

Which devices are Fleming's left- hand and right- hand rules used for?

A

Generator and electric motor

B

Electric motor and generator

C

They are not specifically applied to either device

D

Any rule can be used for any device

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: Fleming's left- hand and right- hand rules are used for understanding the direction of motion, current, magnetic field, and force in electric motors and generators.

4

What is the orientation of the image formed on the retina of our eyes when we see an object?

A

Always erect

B

Erect or inverted, depending on the intensity of the light

C

Erect or inverted, depending on the age of the person

D

Always inverted

E

Answer

D

Instruction

Explanation: The image formed on the retina of our eyes is always inverted. This means that when we see an object, the image that is projected onto the retina is upside down relative to the actual orientation of the object in the external world. This phenomenon occurs due to the way light rays refract and converge inside the eye, ultimately forming an inverted image on the retina.

5

Select the correct code:

Assertion (A): When a stick is held in a slanting position and dipped into water, observed sideways, it appears shortened and bent at the surface of the water.

Reason (R): The light rays from the stick scatter as they pass through water molecules, causing the stick to appear shortened and bent.

Codes:

A

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B

Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

C

A is false, but R is true

D

A is true, but R is false

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: Total internal reflection occurs when a ray of light strikes a boundary between two mediums at an angle greater than the critical angle, relative to the normal to the surface, resulting in the light being completely reflected back into the original medium.

6

Which principle underlies the functioning of an electron microscope?

A

Wave nature of electrons

B

Optical interference

C

Deflection of charged particles in electromagnetic fields

D

Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: Electron microscopes operate on the principle of the wave nature of electrons. Unlike optical microscopes that use visible light and our eyes for detection, electron microscopes utilize an electron beam and an electron detector. The wave nature of electrons enables electron beams to probe extremely small scales, providing high-resolution imaging capabilities.

7

Which scenario results in the maximum magnitude of the resultant of two vectors?

A

When vectors are parallel and act in the same direction

B

When vectors are antiparallel and act in the opposite direction

C

When vectors are perpendicular to each other

D

None of the above

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: The magnitude of the resultant of two vectors is at its maximum when the vectors act in the same direction. Conversely, the magnitude of the resultant of two vectors is at its minimum when the vectors act in opposite directions.

8

What would happen to the water level in the bucket after the ice tied to a string at the bottom completely melts away?

A

The water level will increase

B

The water level will decrease

C

The water level will remain unchanged

D

The water level will first increase and then return to its original level

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: There are two dimensions of this experiment. One is when Ice floats in water and another is as mentioned in the question. When Ice floats in water, the level of water will remain unchanged when the ice melts away because in this situation, Ice replaced water which is `equal to its weight`.

9

How does the apparent frequency change when the distance between the source of the sound and the listener is decreased?

A

Decreaes

B

Increases

C

It remains the same

D

None of the above

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: According to the Doppler effect, when the distance between the source and listener decreases, the apparent frequency increases. This means that the observed frequency of the sound is higher than its actual frequency.

10

Lambert's law pertains to which of the following concepts?

A

Interference

B

Refraction

C

Reflection

D

Illumination

E

Answer

D

Instruction

Explanation: Lambert’s Law describes how the intensity of light emitted from a surface depends on the angle between the observer's line of sight and the surface normal.

11

Which substance is commonly referred to as "Oil of Mirbane"?

A

Nitrobenzene

B

Toluene

C

Phenolphthalein

D

Phenol

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: Nitrobenzene, a highly toxic and flammable aromatic compound with the chemical formula C6H5NO2, is often recognized by its pale yellow color and bitter almond-like odor. It is commonly referred to as "Oil of Mirbane" or "Nitrobenzol."

12

In the context of radioactivity, which of the following is known as an isomeric transition?

A

Alpha decay

B

Gamma decay

C

Beta decay

D

Election capture

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: An isomeric transition is a type of radioactive decay process characterized by the emission of a gamma ray from an atom whose nucleus is in an excited metastable state, known as a nuclear isomer. This emission of gamma radiation from an excited nuclear state enables the nucleus to release energy and transition to a lower energy state, often its ground state.

13

Which law states that the partial vapor pressure of each component of an ideal mixture of liquids equals the vapor pressure of the pure component multiplied by its mole fraction in the mixture?"

A

Raoult’s law

B

Dalton’s law

C

Avogadro’s law

D

Boyle’s law

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: Raoult’s law states that in an ideal mixture of liquids, the partial vapor pressure of each component is equal to the vapor pressure of that component in its pure state multiplied by its mole fraction in the mixture.

14

Which of the following orbitals will be filled first when comparing two orbitals?

A

Orbital with a higher sum of the principal quantum number (n) and azimuthal quantum number (l)

B

Orbital with a lower sum of the principal quantum number (n) and azimuthal quantum number (l)

C

Orbital with a lower principal quantum number (n)

D

Orbital with a lower azimuthal quantum number (l)

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: According to the Aufbau principle, electrons fill orbitals starting with the lowest value of (n+l). If two orbitals have the same value of (n+l), the orbital with the lower value of (n) is filled first. If both (n+l) and (n) are the same, the orbital with the lower value of (l) is filled first.

15

What type of reaction occurs when an iron nail in a copper sulfate solution turns brownish in color?

A

Single displacement reaction

B

Double displacement reaction

C

Decomposition reaction

D

None of the above

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: When an iron nail is placed in a copper sulfate solution, iron being more reactive than copper, displaces copper from the solution forming iron sulfate and copper metal. This is a classic example of a single displacement reaction, also known as a substitution reaction.

16

What can we predict about the magnetic nature of a doubly occupied molecule?"

A

paramagnetic

B

diamagnetic

C

It may exhibit paramagnetism, diamagnetism, or both depending on its molecular structure

D

None of the above

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: The magnetic nature of a molecule can be predicted using its molecular orbital electronic configuration. If all the molecular orbitals (MOs) are doubly occupied, the substance exhibits diamagnetic behavior. Conversely, if one or more MOs are singly occupied, the substance shows paramagnetic behavior.

17

What is the name of the device that converts the chemical energy of a spontaneous redox reaction into electrical energy?"

A

Voltaic cell

B

Fuel cell

C

Electrolytic cell

D

None of the above

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: A voltaic cell, also known as a galvanic cell, is a device that converts the chemical energy of a spontaneous redox reaction into electrical energy.

18

Among the following elements, which one is most likely to lose electrons?

A

Fluorine

B

Potassium

C

Lithium

D

Copper

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: Lithium, being a metal and located in Group 1 of the periodic table, has a strong tendency to lose electrons due to its low ionization energy and the desire to achieve a stable electron configuration similar to noble gases.

19

What type of system is represented by warming Ammonium chloride with sodium hydroxide in a test tube?

A

Open system

B

Closed system

C

Isolated system

D

Adiabatic system

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: In a closed system, energy may be exchanged with the surroundings, but matter cannot enter or leave the system. In this scenario, the test tube confines the reactants and products, allowing only energy exchange with the surroundings.

20

Why does spirit in contact with the body give a cool sensation?"

A

Due to its liquid state

B

Due to its transparency

C

Due to its high volatility

D

Due to its low thermal conductivity

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: The cooling sensation experienced when spirit (like rubbing alcohol) comes in contact with the body is due to its high volatility. As it evaporates quickly, it absorbs heat from the surroundings, including the body, causing a cooling effect.

21

Which blood protein primarily regulates the water content in plasma?

A

Hemoglobin

B

Albumin

C

Fibrinogen

D

Immunoglobulin

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: Albumin is the most abundant protein in blood plasma, constituting about 60% of total plasma protein. One of its essential functions is to regulate the osmotic pressure of the blood, which in turn controls the amount of water that is retained in the bloodstream. This regulation helps maintain proper hydration levels within the body's tissues and organs.

22

Which of the following diseases is associated with Human Papillomavirus (HPV)?

A

Prostate Cancer

B

Cervical Cancer

C

Dengue Fever

D

Alzheimer's Disease

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: Human Papillomavirus (HPV) is a well-known cause of cervical cancer. HPV infection is the primary risk factor for the development of cervical cancer, with certain high-risk strains of the virus being particularly associated with this disease.

23

What serves as a connecting link between angiosperms and gymnosperms?

A

Gnetophytes

B

Conifers

C

Ginkgo Biloba

D

Cycads

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: Gnetophytes are a group of gymnosperms that share some characteristics with both angiosperms and other gymnosperms. They possess vessel elements in their xylem, which is a feature typically found in angiosperms. Additionally, their reproductive structures are similar to those of angiosperms in some ways, such as the presence of double fertilization. These shared characteristics suggest that gnetophytes act as a connecting link between angiosperms and other gymnosperms.

24

What is the cause of papaya foot rot?

A

Papaya mosaic virus

B

Fusarium solani

C

Botrytis cinerea

D

Pythium aphanidermatum

E

Answer

D

Instruction

Explanation: Pythium aphanidermatum is a species of water mold (oomycete) that can cause foot rot in papaya plants. It is a pathogen known to attack a wide range of plants, including various vegetables, fruits, and ornamental crops.

25

Which of the following represents a fundamental nervous system function?

A

Digesting food

B

Blinking in response to a sudden bright light

C

Solving a crossword puzzle

D

Sweating during exercise

E

Answer

D,

Instruction

Explanation: Sweating during exercise is indeed an example of a basic nervous system function, specifically involving the autonomic nervous system (ANS).

26

Which functions are associated with muscular tissue?

Generating body movements

Maintaining body posture

Select the correct option(s):

A

Only a

B

Only b

C

Both a and b

D

None of the above

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: Muscular tissue facilitates body movements by contracting and relaxing, enabling activities such as walking and grasping objects. Additionally, it stabilizes body positions, maintaining posture and balance, even at rest. Therefore, both functions—movement generation and posture stabilization—are integral to muscular tissue.

27

What is the role of Sertoli cells in the male reproductive system?

A

Aid in sperm production

B

Secrete male sex hormones

C

Transmit male genes

D

Provide nutrition to germ cells

E

Answer

D

Instruction

Explanation: Sertoli cells in the testes provide crucial nutritional support to developing sperm cells by transporting nutrients from the blood, responding to hormonal signals, and engulfing residual bodies. Their function is essential for sperm maturation within the seminiferous tubules.

28

What is the term for the movement of water molecules through the plasma membrane?

A

Diffusion

B

Filtration

C

Endocytosis

D

Osmosis

E

Answer

D

Instruction

Explanation: Osmosis is the process by which water molecules move across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration. In other words, it is the movement of water down its concentration gradient through the plasma membrane. This movement occurs until equilibrium is reached, meaning the concentration of water is the same on both sides of the membrane.

29

Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

Chlamydia

B

Syphilis

C

Gonorrhea

D

AIDS

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. This bacterium can infect the genital tract, urethra, rectum, throat, and eyes. Gonorrhea is typically spread through sexual contact with an infected person.

30

How is cirrhosis, a liver disease characterized by abnormal liver structure and function, primarily diagnosed?

A

Blood Test

B

Liver Biopsy

C

Imaging tests (e.g., Ultrasound, MRI)

D

All of the above

E

Answer

D

Instruction

Explanation: "All of the above" is the correct answer because cirrhosis is diagnosed through a combination of methods, including blood tests to assess liver function, liver biopsy for tissue examination, and imaging tests (e.g., ultrasound, MRI) to visualize liver structure. This multi-modal approach allows for comprehensive evaluation and confirmation of cirrhosis diagnosis.

31

Who among the following figures is commonly referred to as Nigantha Nataputta in Pali texts?

A

Siddhartha Gautama

B

Mahavira Vardhamana

C

Parshvanatha

D

Rishabhanatha

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: In Pali texts, Mahavira, also known as Vardhamana, is referred to as Nigantha Nataputta. He was the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism and the founder of its central tenets. The term "Nigantha Nataputta" translates to "the naked ascetic leader," reflecting Mahavira's lifestyle as a wandering ascetic who practiced extreme forms of austerity and renunciation.

32

During the Mauryan period, what were the responsibilities of the Mudradhyaksha?

A

Management of Forests

B

Oversight of Trade Routes

C

Administration of Commerce

D

Issuance of Passports

E

Answer

D

Instruction

Explanation: During the Mauryan period, the Mudradhyaksha was responsible for the issuance of passports. Passports during this era were not exactly like the modern-day travel documents but were more akin to seals or stamps that provided permission or clearance for individuals to travel through certain territories or engage in specific activities.

33

In which modern region did the "Amri Culture" develop?

A

Punjab, Pakistan

B

Sindh and Baluchistan, Pakistan

C

Gujarat, India

D

Rajasthan, India

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: The Amri Culture developed in the regions of Sindh and Baluchistan, which are now part of Pakistan. This culture emerged during the Bronze Age, around 3600-3300 BCE. The Amri Culture is known for its distinctive pottery, which often featured geometric designs and patterns.

34

Consider the following statements about Sakya Clan.

It was situated near the border of present-day Nepal.

Mahatma Buddha’s mother, Maya Devi, belonged to this clan.

It had a republican form of government.

The capital of the Sakya clan was

Kapilavastu

.

Select the correct option from the codes given below:

A

Only 1

B

Only 1 and 4

C

Only 3 and 4

D

1, 2, 3, 4

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: The republican kingdom of Sakya thrived near the border of what is now Nepal. Mahatma Buddha hailed from the illustrious lineage of the Sakyas. Governed by a democratic constitution, the republican state of the Sakyas was known for its progressive governance. Its capital city was Kapilavastu.

35

Which of the following works is primarily focused on depicting the cycle of seasons?

A

Ritusamhara

B

Kalidasa's Works

C

Abhijnanasakuntalam

D

None of the above

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: Ritusamhara is a poem composed by Kalidasa, illustrating the cyclic nature of seasons. On the other hand, Kumarasambhava narrates the tale of the birth of Shiva and Parvati’s son, while Raghuvamsha portrays Vishnu as the origin and culmination of the universe.

36

In which of the following inscriptions is Ashoka referred to as Buddhashakya?

A

Maski Rock Edict

B

Sarnath Lion Capital Inscription

C

Delhi-Topra Major Rock Edict

D

Kandahar Bilingual Inscription

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: Emperor Ashoka, renowned by various epithets, such as Buddhashakya and Ashoka, as recorded in the Maski Rock Edict, is hailed for his devotion to righteousness. In the Sarnath Pillar inscription, he is exalted as Dharmasoka, symbolizing his commitment to dharma and ethical governance.

37

Which of the following rulers constructed a stupa to enshrine the relics of the Buddha in the city of Purushpura (modern-day Peshawar)?

A

Ashoka

B

Kanishka

C

Chandragupta Maurya

D

Vima Kadphises

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: Kanishka had two capitals, Purushpura and Mathura. In Purushpura, he erected a colossal stupa to enshrine the sacred relics of the Buddha. The structure was renowned for its grandeur, a sentiment echoed by the Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien, who visited the region in the early fifth century CE.

38

Which of the following tribes is associated with the monuments and copper plate inscriptions found at Nagarjunakonda and Dharanikota?

A

Cholas

B

Pallavas

C

Ikshvakus

D

Chalukyas

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: The Ikshvakus emerged following the decline of the Satavahanas in the eastern part of the Indian peninsula, particularly in the Krishna-Guntur region. Numerous monuments and copper plate inscriptions discovered at Nagarjunakonda and Dharanikota are attributed to the Ikshvakus, highlighting their cultural and historical significance in the region.

39

During the Chola administration, Paraga nagaram was the corporate organization of which of the following?

A

Silk traders

B

Spices merchants

C

Seafaring merchants

D

Grain traders

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: During the Chola administration, the nagaram system was intricately structured to accommodate different trades and specialized groups, with Paraga nagaram serving as a corporate entity for seafaring merchants and Vaniya nagaram catering to the needs of oil merchants.

40

Who among the following Indo-Greek rulers is renowned for stabilizing Indo-Greek power and expanding the empire's frontiers in India?

A

Demetrius I

B

Menander

C

Eucratides I

D

Antialcidas

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: Menander, also known as Milinda or Minedra, stood as the preeminent figure among the Indo-Greek rulers. Not only did he stabilize Indo-Greek authority in India, but he also significantly expanded the empire's boundaries within the region.

41

Which epic poetic work in Hindi, dating back to the 12th century, primarily revolves around the events of which battle?

A

Battle of Mahoba

B

Battle of Chandawar

C

Battle of Ranthambore

D

Battle of Gwalior

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: Paradidev (Parmal), who battled Prithviraj Chauhan-III in 1182 AD during the Battle of Mahoba, is prominently featured in the Alha Khand, a poetic work in Hindi dating back to the 12th century. This epic comprises numerous ballads recounting acts of valor.

42

In the Ashta Pradhan system, which facilitated the administration of Shivaji's Maratha empire, who was primarily tasked with General Administration?

A

Moro Trimbak Pingale

B

Ramchandra Neelkanth Mujumdar

C

Bahiroji Pingale

D

Annaji Datto

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: Moro Trimbak Pingale, who served as the Peshwa during Shivaji's reign, was indeed responsible for General Administration in the Ashta Pradhan system. As the Peshwa, Moro Trimbak Pingale held significant authority over the administrative affairs of the Maratha empire, overseeing matters such as revenue collection, justice administration, and overall governance.

43

Which ruler of Bengal issued a coin named Zurbe Murshedabad?

A

Nawab Alivardi Khan

B

Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah

C

Nawab Murshid Quli Khan

D

Nawab Shuja-ud-Din Muhammad Khan

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: Murshid Quli Khan, the First Nawab of Bengal, ruled from 1717 to 1727. He renamed Makhsusabad to Murshidabad, and upon receiving acknowledgment from Farrukhsiyar for the name change, he issued the Zurbe Murshedabad coin from his new mint.

44

Which author wrote the Tarikh-i Rashidi?

A

Alberuni

B

Mirza Muhammad Haidar Dughlat

C

Khwaja Nizamuddin Ahmad

D

Muhammad Qasim Hindu Shah

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: During the Mughal era, several contemporary works were composed. Tarikh-i-Rashidi, authored by Mirza Muhammad Haidar Dughlat, stands out as one of the most significant texts for understanding Babur’s reign.

45

At which post did Razia appoint Malik Jamaluddin Yaqut, an Abyssinian slave, in her administration?

A

Wazir

B

Diwan-i-Ashraf

C

Amir-i-Tuzuk

D

Amir-i-akhur

E

Answer

D

Instruction

Explanation: Razia Sultan, the remarkable and pioneering female Muslim ruler of medieval India, made a historic move by appointing Malik Jamaluddin Yaqut, an Abyssinian slave, to the prestigious position of Amir-i-akhur, which entailed the crucial responsibility of overseeing the royal horses.

46

Which king founded the Aravidu Dynasty?

A

Aliya Rama Raya

B

Rama Deva Raya

C

Krishnadevaraya

D

Devaraya II

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: Aliya Rama Raya, the esteemed minister of Sadashiva Raya, had a significant impact on the Vijayanagara Empire. He, being the son-in-law of Emperor Krishna Deva Raya, played a pivotal role in shaping its destiny. Notably, he went on to establish the Aravidu dynasty, which marked the final chapter of the Vijayanagara Empire's illustrious history.

47

Whose account of travels in India is documented in "Travels in India"?

A

Niccolao Manucci

B

Jean-Baptiste Tavernier

C

Francois Bernier

D

Ibn Battuta

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: "Travels in India" is the remarkable account penned by Jean-Baptiste Tavernier. Across six voyages spanning from 1630 to 1668, Tavernier ventured through Persia and India. Renowned not only as a gem merchant but also as a historian, his narratives provide invaluable insights into the cultures and landscapes he encountered during his travels.

48

Which group established ashrams known as ‘Thambas’?

A

Dadupanthis

B

Gorakhpanthis

C

Kabirpanthis

D

None of the above

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: The followers of Dadu Dayal, known as the Dadupanthis, established ashrams known as ‘Thambas’ in Rajasthan. These ashrams served as centers for spiritual practices and gatherings, embodying the essence of Dadu Dayal's teachings and philosophy, as he spent a significant portion of his spiritual journey in Rajasthan.

49

Which saint facilitated the firm establishment of the Chishti order in the Deccan?

A

Rafiuddin Harun

B

Khwaja Gesu Daraz

C

Shaikh Nasiruddin Mahmud

D

Sayyid Muhammad Yadullah

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: The Chishti order found strong footing in the Deccan due to the influential presence of Gesu Daraz in Gulbarga. Born in Delhi in 1321, Gesudaraz migrated to the Deccan with his father following Muhammad bin Tughlaq's decree for a mass migration.

50

Under the Delhi Sultanate administration, what was the department responsible for managing slaves?

A

Diwan-i-Bandagan

B

Diwan-i-Qaza

C

Diwan-i-Khairat

D

Diwan-i-Arz

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: The administration of slaves under the Delhi Sultanate fell under the jurisdiction of the Diwan-i-Bandagan. The Wakil-i-dar, serving as the officer in charge, oversaw the affairs of this department, ensuring the management and welfare of slaves across the realm.

51

Which of the following dates marks the execution of Bhagat Singh?

A

March 19, 1930

B

April 23, 1932

C

March 23, 1931

D

February 14, 1931

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: Bhagat Singh, along with his comrades Rajguru and Sukhdev, faced execution at the tender age of 23 for their participation in the assassination of British police officer John Saunders as part of the Lahore Conspiracy Case. Their actions were fueled by a desire for retribution for the death of freedom fighter Lala Lajpat Rai, who succumbed to injuries inflicted by police brutality. Following a trial by a Special Tribunal, they were sentenced to death by hanging. On March 23, 1931, Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev were executed, leaving an indelible mark on India's struggle for independence.

52

Which historical event is the play ‘Neel Darpan’ associated with?

A

Sanyasi Rebellion

B

Deccan Riots

C

Indigo Revolt

D

Salt Satyagraha

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: "Neel Darpan," a Bengali play penned by Dinabandhu Mitra between 1858 and 1859, holds significant historical importance as it shed light on the exploitative practices of the British during the Nilbidraha, or Indigo revolt, which occurred between February and March 1859 in Bengal. This uprising saw farmers courageously resisting the unjust imposition of cultivating indigo on their lands under the British Raj.

53

Which Governor-General pursued a proactive "Forward" Policy towards Afghanistan?

A

Lord Auckland

B

Lord Ellenborough

C

Lord Lytton

D

Lord Lawrence

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: Lord Ellenborough pursued a proactive "Forward Policy" characterized by territorial ambitions and disputes, aiming to secure control over targeted territories through invasion, annexation, or the establishment of compliant buffer states. This approach sought to assert dominance and expand influence in regions like Afghanistan.

54

To which of the following is Pingali Venkayya related?

A

Indian Army

B

Designing India’s National Flag

C

Composing India’s National Anthem

D

Drafting India’s Constitution

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: The tricolor flag, initially accepted by the Indian National Congress in 1931, featured a charkha in the center of the white band. This iconic symbol was later replaced by the Wheel taken from the Sarnath Ashoka pillar. The design of the national flag was formally adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on 22 July 1947.

55

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Government of India Act, 1919?

It included a separate Preamble.

It provided for the classification of central and provincial subjects.

It categorized central subjects into reserved and transferred categories.

Select the correct option from the choices below:

A

a and b Only

B

b and c Only

C

a and c Only

D

All of the above

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: The third statement is inaccurate because it misinterprets the purpose of the Government of India Act 1919. Rather than focusing solely on the division of provincial subjects into reserved and transferred categories, this landmark legislation was primarily aimed at introducing self-governing institutions to India in a gradual manner.

56

Can you identify the distinguished individual based on the provided clues?

Founder of the English-language weekly newspaper, Bombay Chronicle. Recognized as "The Lion of Bombay."

One of the founders of the Indian National Congress and served as its president during the Calcutta session of 1890.

Which of the following options correctly identifies this personality?

A

Dadabhai Naoroji

B

Gopal Krishna Gokhale

C

Sir Pherozeshah Mehta

D

Surendranath Banerjee

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: Sir Pherozeshah Mehta, a distinguished Parsi Indian political leader, left an indelible mark on India's political landscape. His multifaceted contributions include the establishment of the influential English-language weekly newspaper, the Bombay Chronicle. Revered as "The Lion of Bombay," he exemplified courage and leadership in his endeavors. Furthermore, Mehta played a pivotal role as one of the founding members of the Indian National Congress, showcasing his commitment to the nation's freedom struggle. His presidency during the Calcutta session of 1890 underscored his prominent position within the Congress and his dedication to advancing its objectives.

57

What was the outcome of the Battle of St. Thomas?

A

The French emerged victorious

B

The Nawab of Carnatic lost

C

Both sides agreed to a treaty

D

The English consolidated their influence

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: The Battle of St. Thomas saw the defeat of the Nawab of Carnatic, Anwar-Ud-Din, at the hands of the French commander, Dupleix. This significant event served as a pivotal moment, revealing to the European powers the potential ease with which they could assert their dominance in India.

58

Who among the following founded the journal "Kudi Arasu"?

A

E. V. Ramasamy Naicker (Periyar)

B

Qazi Mohammed Abdul Karim Nanotvi

C

K. Kelappan

D

Narayana Guru

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: Kudi Arasu, a significant Tamil journal, was established by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, commonly known as Periyar, on May 2nd, 1925. Its inception marked a crucial milestone in Tamil literature and social reform movements, serving as a platform for advocating progressive ideas and challenging societal norms.

59

During the tenure of which Viceroy of India were the Indian Penal Code, Civil Procedure Code, and Criminal Code passed?

A

Lord William Bentinck

B

Lord Dalhousie

C

Lord Ripon

D

Lord Canning

E

Answer

D Explanation: Several of the most significant recommendations put forth by the First Law Commission pertained to the Indian Penal Code, Criminal Procedure Code, and Criminal code. Notably, during the tenure of Lord Canning, India witnessed the enactment of pivotal legislation including the Indian Penal Code, the Civil Procedure Code, and the Criminal Code.

Instruction

60

By which of the following treaties did the British formally recognize Afghanistan as an independent and sovereign state?

A

Treaty of Rawalpindi

B

Treaty of Durand

C

Treaty of Gandamak

D

Treaty of Simla

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: At the conclusion of the Third Anglo-Afghan War, the Treaty of Rawalpindi was signed in 1923 by both the British and Afghanistan. King Amanullah's recognition of the Durand Line was reciprocated by the British, who formally acknowledged Afghanistan as an independent and sovereign nation.

61

Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?

A

Part II

B

Part III

C

Part IV

D

Part V

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution. These rights guarantee civil liberties such as freedom of speech, expression, and religion, among others. Part II deals with Citizenship, Part IV with Directive Principles of State Policy, and Part V with the Union.

62

Which amendment to the Indian Constitution introduced the provision of Right to Education as a fundamental right?

A

84th Amendment

B

86th Amendment

C

89th Amendment

D

92nd Amendment

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: The Right to Education Act (RTE) was incorporated into the Indian Constitution as a fundamental right through the 86th Amendment Act of 2002. This amendment inserted Article 21A, which guarantees free and compulsory education to all children aged 6 to 14 years.

63

Which article of the Constitution of India guarantees that all public places are open to all citizens?

A

Article 15 (2)

B

Article 16 (2)

C

Article 19 (1)(e)

D

Article 21

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: Article 15(2) of the Constitution states that all public places are accessible to every citizen without discrimination. Similarly, Article 16(2) prohibits discrimination based solely on religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence, or any combination thereof, in matters of employment or holding office under the State.

64

Which of the following committees of the Lok Sabha receives assistance from the Comptroller & Auditor General of India?

A

Committee on Public Undertakings

B

Committee on Public Accounts

C

Committee on Government Assurances

D

Public Accounts Committee

E

Answer

D

Instruction

Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) scrutinizes the annual audit reports prepared by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), which are presented to the Parliament by the President.

65

For how many consecutive days can a member abstain from the sessions without permission before Parliament or a State Legislature can declare their seat vacant?

A

15 days

B

30 days

C

60 days

D

90 days

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: A Member of Parliament (MP) can face disqualification if they are continuously absent for 60 days without permission from the Parliament or State Legislature.

66

After the recommendations of the States Reorganization Commission formed in 1953, how many states and Union Territories were created?

A

15 States and 4 Union Territories

B

14 States and 6 Union Territories

C

18 States and 4 Union Territories

D

13 States and 6 Union Territories

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: The States Reorganization Commission, also known as the Fazl Ali Commission, recommended the abolition of the four-fold classification of states and proposed the creation of 16 states and 3 Union Territories. However, on November 1, 1956, only 14 states and 6 Union Territories were actually created, deviating from the Commission's original suggestion.

67

Which constitutional amendment introduced reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha for Scheduled Tribes (STs) in Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, and Mizoram?

A

42nd Amendment

B

44th Amendment

C

51st Amendment

D

71st Amendment

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: The Fifty-First Amendment Act of 1984 introduced the reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha for Scheduled Tribes in the states of Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, and Mizoram. Additionally, it extended this provision to the Legislative Assemblies of Meghalaya and Nagaland.

68

Which constitutional amendment extended the freeze on the readjustment of seats in the Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies for an additional 25 years, aiming to promote population control measures?

A

77th Amendment

B

84th Amendment

C

92nd Amendment

D

94th Amendment

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: The 84th Amendment Act of 2001 extended the freeze on the readjustment of seats in the Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies for an additional 25 years, until 2026. This extension aimed to support population control measures.

69

To whom does the Attorney General of India submit his resignation?

A

President of India

B

Chief Justice of India

C

Prime Minister of India

D

Lok Sabha Speaker

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: The Attorney General of India may resign from his position by submitting his resignation to the President of India. Traditionally, he tenders his resignation when the government (council of ministers) resigns or undergoes a change, as he is appointed based on its recommendation.

70

Which of the following types of grants requires approval from the Public Accounts Committee before being presented to the Lok Sabha for voting?

A

Emergency grant

B

Nominal grant

C

Excess grant

D

Supplementary grant

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: Excess Grants are allocated when expenditure surpasses the budgeted amount for a specific service within a fiscal year. These grants are subject to approval by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament before being presented for voting in the Lok Sabha, typically after the conclusion of the financial year.

71

Which pair of institutions is commonly referred to as the "Bretton Woods Twins"?

A

International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and International Monetary Fund (IMF)

B

International Development Association (IDA) and International Finance Corporation (IFC)

C

International Development Association (IDA) and Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)

D

International Monetary Fund (IMF) and International Development Association (IDA)

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: The planners at Bretton Woods established the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), which now constitute a significant part of the World Bank Group.

72

Which institution releases the "World Economic Outlook Report"?

A

International Monetary Fund (IMF)

B

World Trade Organization (WTO)

C

Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)

D

United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: World Economic Outlook Report is published by International Monetary Fund.

73

Which was the first Regional Rural Bank (RRB) in India to adopt the CBS platform?

A

Prathama Bank

B

Baroda Uttar Pradesh Gramin Bank

C

Rushikulya Gramya Bank

D

Karnataka Vikas Grameena Bank

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: Rushikulya Gramya Bank (RGB), operating in southern Orissa, holds the distinction of being the pioneer among regional rural banks (RRBs) in India to embrace the Core Banking Solutions (CBS) platform. It was the first RRB to seamlessly integrate all its branches onto the CBS platform, marking a significant milestone in rural banking technology.

74

What does FINO stand for?

A

Financial Inclusion Network and Operations

B

Farmers' Investment Network and Operations

C

Federal Investment Network and Operations

D

Financial Integration Network and Operations

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: Financial Inclusion Network and Operations (FINO), headquartered in the financial hub of India, operates as an integrated technology platform and delivery channel. It facilitates the sourcing and servicing of micro customers on a significant scale, contributing to widespread financial inclusion.

75

What is meant by structural changes in exports?

A

Alteration in the exported commodities

B

Expansion of exports while maintaining imports

C

Escalation in imports

D

Modification in the imported commodities

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: Structural changes in exports refer to alterations in the types of commodities being exported. The evolving composition of India’s exports brings about dynamic shifts in the export commodity pattern, leading to changes in their rankings.

76

Which entities are directly associated with central cooperative banks?

A

District cooperative banks

B

Reserve Bank of India

C

Agricultural credit societies

D

State Cooperative banks

E

Answer

D

Instruction

Explanation: Central cooperative banks are directly associated with state governments. They serve as the apex institutions in the three-tier structure of the cooperative credit system in India, with district cooperative banks and primary agricultural credit societies operating under their umbrella.

77

If the Reserve Bank of India reduces the cash reserve ratio, what effect will it have on credit creation?

A

Credit creation will remain unaffected.

B

Credit creation will decrease.

C

Credit creation will increase.

D

The impact cannot be determined from the given information.

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: A reduction in the cash reserve ratio by the Reserve Bank of India implies that banks are required to hold less cash reserves against their deposits. Consequently, banks will have more funds available for lending, leading to an increase in credit creation.

78

With which institution did the Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC) merge on 12 July 1982?

A

SIDBI

B

SBI

C

NABARD

D

IRDAI

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: On 12 July 1982, the Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC) merged with the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). This merger aimed to streamline and strengthen the agricultural credit system in India by consolidating the efforts and resources of both institutions.

79

Which benchmark rate do Indian banks primarily use to calculate loans and credits denominated in Indian currency?

A

Prime Lending Rate (PLR)

B

Base Rate

C

Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)

D

Repo Rate

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: MCLR stands for the Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate, which is a benchmark rate used by banks in India to determine the minimum interest rate at which they can lend money. It takes into account the marginal cost of funds, operating expenses, and other factors.

80

What does the CD ratio represent in the field of banking strategies?

A

Cash Deposit Ratio

B

Credit Deposit Ratio

C

Currency Deposit Ratio

D

Current Deposit Ratio

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: The Cash Deposit Ratio (CD ratio) is defined as the ratio of cash and financial balances held by banks in relation to the deposits they have accepted. It is calculated by dividing the total cash reserves and financial assets held by the bank by the total amount of deposits.

81

In economic and financial terms, what does the term "Capital" refer to?

A

Financial wealth utilized for generating more wealth

B

Wealth stored in storage and lockers

C

Property wealth

D

Savings for future utilization

E

Answer

A

Instruction

Explanation: The term "Capital" refers to financial wealth that is further used for the generation of more wealth. It includes assets such as money, machinery, equipment, and investments that are employed in productive activities to generate income and profits.

82

What is the primary factor used to define the poverty line?

A

Quality of education and access to healthcare

B

Type and stability of employment

C

Expenditure required for the acquisition of goods and essential resources

D

Housing affordability and living conditions

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: The poverty line is primarily determined by the income needed to afford essential goods and resources necessary for a basic standard of living. It represents the threshold below which individuals or households are considered to be living in poverty.

83

In which Indian state is the "Vechur cow," the smallest cattle breed in the world, found?

A

Karnataka

B

Kerala

C

Tamil Nadu

D

Andhra Pradhesh

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: The Vechur cow, the smallest cattle breed in the world, is found in the state of Kerala, India. This breed is known for its diminutive size, with an average height of 87 cm and a length of 124 cm. The Vechur cow derives its name from the village of Vechoor, situated in the Kottayam district of Kerala.

84

What are the correct characteristics of the Great Plains of India?

It is also known as the Granary of India.

The rivers

in

this plain are perennial.

The groundwater level is very high in this region.

This area supports around 40% of the total population of India.

Choose the correct option from the following:

A

1 and 2

B

1, 3 and 4

C

2, 3 and 4

D

All of the above

E

Answer

D

Instruction

Explanation: The Great Plains of India, also known as the Northern Plains, possess all the mentioned characteristics. They are renowned as the Granary of India due to their fertile soil and high agricultural productivity.

85

The type of desert characterized by less sand and high, largely barren, hard rocky plateaus is known by which of the following names?

A

Erg

B

Reg

C

Serir

D

Hamada

E

Answer

D

Instruction

Explanation: The type of desert described in the question is known as a "Hamada." Hamadas are characterized by extensive rocky plateaus with minimal sand cover. They are largely barren and consist of hard, rocky terrain.

86

Which hill range separates the State of Manipur and the State of Nagaland?

A

Patkai hills

B

Naga hills

C

Jaintia hills

D

Barail hills

E

Answer

D

Instruction

Explanation: The Barail hills, located in Assam, serve as the boundary between the State of Manipur and the State of Nagaland. This hill range is the highest in Assam and plays a significant geographical role in delineating the border between the two states.

87

Which passage separates the north Andaman Island from the smaller islands Landfall Island and East Island?

A

Stewart Passage

B

Hardy Passage

C

Cleugh Passage

D

Havelock Passage

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: Cleugh Passage serves as the boundary between the north Andaman Island and the smaller islands, Landfall Island and East Island. This passage, located in the Andaman Islands, is actually a strait of the Bay of Bengal.

88

In which of the following states/union territories of India is Radhanagar Beach located?

A

Goa

B

Tamil Nadu

C

Andaman and Nicobar Islands

D

Puducherry

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: Radhanagar Beach, renowned for its pristine beauty and clear waters, is situated in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Specifically, it is located on Swaraj Dweep, formerly known as Havelock Island, which is part of the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago. Swaraj Dweep lies on the eastern side of South Andaman.

89

Which of the following matches of states and their type of climate are correct?

Kerala and Karnataka Coast – Monsoon with Short Dry Season (

Amw

)

Uttar Pradesh and Bihar – Monsoon with Dry Winter (

Cwg

)

Tamil Nadu Coast – Monsoon with Dry Summer (As)

Arunachal Pradesh – Cold Humid Winter with Shorter Summer (

Dfc

)

Choose the correct option from the codes given below:

A

1 & 2

B

1 & 3

C

2 & 4

D

All of the above

E

Answer

D

Instruction

Explanation: Uttar Pradesh and Bihar experience a Monsoon climate with Dry Winter (Cwg).

Tamil Nadu Coast is characterized by a Monsoon climate with Dry Summer (As).

Arunachal Pradesh has a Cold Humid Winter with Shorter Summer climate (Dfc).

Kerala and Karnataka Coast exhibit a Monsoon climate with Short Dry Season (Amw).

90

In which ocean is Kachchitevu Island located?

A

Arctic Ocean

B

Indian Ocean

C

Atlantic Ocean

D

Southern Ocean

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: Kachchitevu Island is an uninhabited offshore island situated in the Indian Ocean, specifically in the Palk Strait.

91

Which of the following Sufi scholars sought to harmonize Islamic jurisprudence with the principle of wahdat-ul wujud?

A

Zainab al-Ghazali

B

Nizamuddin Firdausi

C

Ibn Arabi

D

Ahmad Sirhindi

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: The Firdausia Sufi order, stemming from the Suhrawardi branch, primarily thrived in the region of Bihar. Its prominence grew under the guidance of Shaikh Harfuddin Yahya, a follower of Nizamuddin Firdausi, who endeavored to reconcile Islamic legal principles with the notion of wahdat-ul wujud.

92

During whose reign was Bihar's medieval period considered its "Golden Era"?

A

Raja Bhoja

B

Sultan Mahmud

C

Bimbisara

D

Sher Shah Suri

E

Answer

D

Instruction

Explanation: Sher Shah Suri's reign marked the "Golden Era" of medieval Bihar. His governance saw significant achievements, including the construction of the Grand Trunk Road, economic reforms such as the introduction of custom duties, and the stabilization of currency.

93

Who was the first woman to hold the position of Deputy Chief Minister in Bihar?

A

Anita Devi

B

Renu Devi

C

Rabri Devi

D

Manju Devi

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: Renu Devi made history by becoming the first woman to hold the position of Deputy Chief Minister in Bihar.

94

Which district in Bihar does not border Nepal?

A

Araira

B

Madhubani

C

Purnia

D

Sitamarhi

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: Purnia does not share border with Nepal. Other three share borders with Nepal.

95

Under which climate type does most of Bihar fall?

A

Hot Semi-Arid

B

Hot and Dry

C

Sub-Tropical Monsoon

D

Tropical Savannah

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: The majority of Bihar falls under the subtropical monsoon climate type. This climate is characterized by hot summers, cool winters, and a distinct rainy season.

96

Which type of soil is absent in Agro-climatic zone I of Bihar?

A

Loam

B

Sandy Loam

C

Clay and Clay Loam

D

None of the above

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: Clay and Clay Loam soils are not found in the Agro-climatic zone I of Bihar. This region includes districts like West Champaran, East Champaran, Siwan, Saran, Sitamarhi etc. The pH value of soil ranges between 6.5-8.4. The maximum temperature in this region is 36.6°C and the minimum temperature is 7.7°C.

97

In which year were the Mahabodhi Temple Compound in Bodhgaya and Gaya included in UNESCO's list of world-renowned places in the cultural category?

A

2000

B

2001

C

2002

D

2003

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: The Mahabodhi Temple Compound in Bodhgaya and Gaya were added to UNESCO's list of world-renowned places in the cultural category in 2002. The Mahabodhi Temple is revered as one of the holiest sites of Buddhism, as it marks the location where Buddha attained enlightenment. Situated on the banks of the Niranjana River, it stands as one of the oldest brick temples in India.

98

Which agro-climatic region of Bihar boasts the highest number of districts?

A

North Eastern

B

South Western

C

Central

D

Northern Western

E

Answer

D

Instruction

Explanation: The Northern Western agro-climatic region of Bihar has the highest number of districts, totaling 13. It encompasses West Champaran, East Champaran, Siwan, Saran, Sitamarhi, Sheohar, Muzaffarpur, Vaishali, Madhubani, Darbhanga, Samastipur, Gopalganj, and Begusarai.

99

In which Bihar district can the rail wheel plant be found?

A

Patna

B

Saran

C

Muzaffarpur

D

Gaya

E

Answer

B

Instruction

Explanation: The rail wheel plant is situated in Bela, Dariyapur Block of Saran district in Bihar. Rail Wheel Plant, Bela, serves as an independent Production Unit of Indian Railways. Inaugurated in 2008 by the former Railway Minister of India, Laloo Prasad Yadav, it was constructed at a cost of Rs.1,450 crore.

100

When was the Bihari Youth Union established?

A

1929

B

1944

C

1928

D

1927

E

Answer

C

Instruction

Explanation: The Bihari Youth Union was established in 1928 during the Bihar Student Conference held in Motihari. Gyan Saha was appointed as its General Secretary.