1

Which of the following radio frequencies are commonly utilized worldwide in air navigation systems?

A

THz

B

VHF

C

VLF

D

UHF

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The VHF (Very High Frequency) omnidirectional radio range (VOR) is a short-range radio navigation system utilized by aircraft. It allows aircraft to ascertain their position and maintain their course by receiving radio signals transmitted by a network of stationary ground radio beacons, utilizing a receiver unit.

Instruction

2

What is the SI unit of the coefficient of mutual inductance for a coil?

A

Volt

B

Farad

C

Henry

D

Weber

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The coefficient of mutual inductance (M) represents the ability of one coil to induce a voltage in another coil when there is a change in current in the first coil. It depends on factors such as the number of turns in each coil, their relative positions, and the permeability of the material between them. The SI unit of mutual inductance is the henry (H), named after Joseph Henry, and it is defined as one volt-second per ampere (V·s/A). In simpler terms, it measures the amount of induced voltage per unit change in current, and it quantifies the coupling between the coils in an electromagnetic system.

Instruction

3

What does a negative value of acceleration indicate?

A

The velocity is decreasing

B

The velocity is increasing

C

The velocity remains the same

D

The object comes to rest

E

Answer

A, Explanation: When acceleration is negative, it means that the velocity is decreasing. This implies that the object is slowing down, as the rate of change of velocity (deceleration) is in the opposite direction to its initial motion. For example, if an object is moving forward with a positive velocity and experiences negative acceleration, it indicates that its speed is decreasing, possibly leading to eventual stoppage or a change in direction.

Instruction

4

If a Maruti car is travelling north on a straight road and its brakes are applied, what will happen?

A

Accelerate either east or west

B

Accelerate to the south

C

Accelerate to the north

D

Have no acceleration at all

E

Answer

B, Explanation: When a car is traveling north on a straight road and the brakes are applied, the vehicle undergoes deceleration, transitioning towards the opposite direction.

Instruction

5

What enables swimming to be possible?

A

Newton’s law of gravitation

B

First law of motion

C

Second law of motion

D

Third law of motion

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The third law of motion explains how propulsion is achieved. When a swimmer pushes against the water with their arms and legs (the action), the water exerts an equal and opposite force back onto the swimmer (the reaction). This reaction force from the water propels the swimmer forward through the water.

Instruction

6

Why does a hockey player's push on the ball on the ground cause it to come to a rest after traveling a certain distance?

A

The body experiences an opposing force

B

The player ceases to exert force on the ball

C

There is no net force acting on the ball

D

The ball is set in motion solely by pushing

E

Answer

A, Explanation: This refers to the phenomenon described by Newton's third law of motion, which states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

In the context of the hockey player pushing the ball on the ground, when the player exerts a force on the ball by pushing it, the ball exerts an equal and opposite force back on the player. This opposing force acts as a resistance to the player's push. As a result, the player feels the pushback, which is often referred to as the "opposing force."

Instruction

7

How can the impact of frictional force be reduced?

A

Utilizing a sleek plane

B

Utilizing a sleek object

C

Applying a lubricant to the surface of contact

D

All of the above

E

Answer

D, Explanation: "All of the above" serves as the correct answer because each option presented offers a viable strategy to mitigate the impact of frictional force. Utilizing a smooth plane or object reduces surface irregularities, thereby decreasing the friction generated during movement. Additionally, applying a lubricant to the surface of contact forms a barrier that reduces direct contact between surfaces, thus minimizing friction. These methods collectively aim to diminish the resistance encountered during motion, making them effective in minimizing the effects of frictional force.

Instruction

8

Rate of performing work is termed as

A

Motion

B

Power

C

Physical energy

D

Mechanical energy

E

Answer

B, Explanation: "Power" is the term used to describe the rate at which work is done or the rate of performing work. In physics, power is defined as the amount of work done per unit of time.

Instruction

9

What is the kinetic energy of a freely falling object upon hitting the ground?

A

Collides and then bounces back

B

Creates a crater in the ground upon impact

C

Converted into heat energy

D

None of the above

E

Answer

C, Explanation: When a freely falling object hits the ground, its kinetic energy is converted into heat energy due to the process of impact. This conversion occurs because as the object comes into contact with the ground, there is a rapid deceleration and deformation of both the object and the surface it impacts.

Instruction

10

Which statement is correct about angular momentum?

A

It is a vector quantity

B

It is a scalar quantity

C

It is directly proportional to moments of inertia

D

All of the above

E

Answer

C, Explanation: This sentence implies that there is a direct relationship between the kinetic energy of an object and its moment of inertia, meaning as one increases, the other also increases in proportion.

Instruction

11

What factors contribute to the utilization of aspartame as a low-calorie sweetener in food products despite its composition consisting of amino acids that typically provide calories?

A

Aspartame, comparable in sweetness to table sugar, differs in its resistance to oxidation within the human body, attributed to the absence of specific enzymes necessary for its breakdown.

B

Incorporating aspartame in food processing preserves its sweet taste while rendering it resistant to oxidation.

C

Despite its equivalence in sweetness to sugar, upon ingestion, aspartame undergoes conversion into metabolites that do not contribute calories.

D

Aspartame, possessing greater sweetness than table sugar, allows for the production of low-calorie food items as smaller amounts suffice, resulting in fewer calories upon oxidation.

E

Answer

D, Explanation: Aspartame is significantly sweeter than table sugar (sucrose), approximately 200 times sweeter. Due to its intense sweetness, only a small amount of aspartame is needed to achieve the same level of sweetness as a larger quantity of sugar. For example, you might use a teaspoon of sugar to sweeten a cup of coffee, but only a tiny fraction of a teaspoon of aspartame to achieve the same sweetness.

Instruction

12

Which one is incorrect about bleaching powder?

A

It serves as a reductive agent in chemical sectors

B

It is employed in paper industries for whitening wood pulp

C

It finds application in purifying drinking water

D

It is utilized in textile industry for whitening flax fabric

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2), which is often used for bleaching in various industries including paper and textile, can indeed act as a reducing agent under certain conditions. However, its primary use in bleaching processes is as an oxidizing agent rather than a reducing agent.

Instruction

13

Which element is essential in the human body for transmitting electrical signals by nerve cells?

A

Cesium

B

Sodium

C

Lithium

D

Rubidium

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Sodium plays a critical role in the transmission of electrical signals in nerve cells. When a neuron is stimulated, sodium channels open, allowing sodium ions to flow into the cell, which causes depolarization of the cell membrane.

Instruction

14

Identify which of the following is not classified as an analgesic.

A

Valium

B

Aspirin

C

Ibuprofen

D

Naproxen

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Valium belongs to a class of medications known as benzodiazepines, primarily used to treat anxiety disorders, muscle spasms, and seizures. While benzodiazepines like Valium can induce sedation and muscle relaxation, they do not directly alleviate pain in the same way as analgesics.

Instruction

15

Identify the statement that is Not accurate regarding true solutions.

A

Its components cannot be separated by filtration.

B

Its particles cannot be seen with the naked eye.

C

It does not exhibit the Tyndall effect.

D

It is opaque and unstable.

E

Answer

D, Explanation: A true solution refers to a homogeneous mixture where solute particles are uniformly dispersed and completely dissolved in the solvent at a molecular level. In such solutions, the solute particles are typically smaller than 1 nanometer in diameter and cannot be separated by filtration or other mechanical means. True solutions are characterized by their transparency, stability, and inability to scatter light, making the solution appear clear and not exhibiting the Tyndall effect.

Instruction

16

Which compound is utilized as a sedative?

A

Phosphorous trichloride

B

Potassium bromide

C

Ethyl alcohol

D

Calcium chloride

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Potassium bromide (KBr) has historically been used as a sedative and anticonvulsant medication. This property makes it useful for calming nervousness, anxiety, and agitation, as well as for managing certain types of seizures.

Instruction

17

Which of the following statements regarding the transmission of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is incorrect?

A

Transmission from female to male is twice as likely as from male to female.

B

Presence of other sexually transmitted infections increases the likelihood of transmission.

C

HIV can be transmitted from an infected mother to her child during pregnancy, childbirth, and through breastfeeding.

D

The risk of HIV transmission from infected blood transfusion is much higher than from exposure to a contaminated needle.

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The risk of HIV transmission is not inherently tied to the gender of the infected individual. Transmission risk depends on various factors such as the type of sexual activity, the presence of other sexually transmitted infections, and the use of preventive measures like condoms. Therefore, it's inaccurate to suggest a gender-based difference in transmission rates.

Instruction

18

What is the number of electrons in one molecule of a nitrogen oxide with a molecular weight of 30?

A

15

B

20

C

25

D

30

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Atomic weight of nitrogen = 14g

Total molecular weight = 30g

No. of oxygen atom in the oxide = 30-14/6 = 1

Total no. of electrons in the compound = 7+8 = 15

Instruction

19

Which property listed below does not correspond with elements of the halogen family?

A

High chemical reactivity is characteristic of halogen family elements.

B

They are metallic in nature.

C

They exist as diatomic molecules in their elemental form.

D

They typically have seven electrons in their outermost shell.

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Elements of the halogen family, which include fluorine, chlorine, bromine, iodine, and astatine, are not metallic in nature. Instead, they belong to the nonmetal category in the periodic table. Nonmetals generally exhibit properties opposite those of metals. For example, they tend to be poor conductors of heat and electricity, have lower densities and melting points, and are often brittle when solid.

Instruction

20

Identify the neutral atom in the Periodic Table that has the same number of electrons as K+ and Cl-.

A

Krypton

B

Neon

C

Helium

D

Argon

E

Answer

D, Explanation: When potassium (K) loses one electron to form the K+ ion, it loses its outermost electron, resulting in a configuration similar to argon. Similarly, when chlorine (Cl) gains one electron to form the Cl- ion, it gains an electron to achieve the electron configuration of argon. Therefore, both K+ and Cl- ions have the same electron configuration as argon, with 18 electrons each.

Instruction

21

In animals, at which stage of mitosis does cytokinesis typically take place?

A

Telophase

B

Metaphase

C

Anaphase

D

Prophase

E

Answer

A, Explanation: In animals, cytokinesis, the process of dividing the cytoplasm and forming two separate daughter cells, typically occurs during the telophase stage of mitosis. During telophase, the duplicated chromosomes have reached opposite poles of the cell, and nuclear envelopes start to reassemble around them.

Instruction

22

Which cell organelles participate in the cell's waste disposal system?

A

Virus

B

Prokaryotes

C

Eukaryotes

D

Plastid

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles found in eukaryotic cells, which function as the cell's "digestive system" or waste disposal system. They contain a variety of hydrolytic enzymes capable of breaking down various biomolecules such as proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids. These enzymes function optimally in the acidic environment maintained within the lysosome.

Instruction

23

Select the correct code:

Assertion (A): The presence of a true nucleus distinguishes eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells.

Reason (R): Prokaryotic cells contain an undifferentiated, unorganized fibrillar chromosome.

A

Only A is true

B

Only R is true

C

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

D

Both A and R are false

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The assertion states that a true nucleus is absent in E. coli and other prokaryotes. This is a valid statement because prokaryotic cells, such as those of E. coli, lack a membrane-bound nucleus that encloses the genetic material. The reason provided supports the assertion by explaining the structure of genetic material in prokaryotic cells. It states that prokaryotic cells contain an undifferentiated, unorganized fibrillar chromosome. This refers to the single circular chromosome found in prokaryotic cells, which lacks the complex organization and compartmentalization seen in eukaryotic cells' linear chromosomes within the nucleus.

Instruction

24

What regulates the elimination of unabsorbed food material from the body?

A

Kidney

B

Liver

C

Anus Sphincter

D

Anus

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The elimination of unabsorbed food material from the body is regulated by the anus sphincter.

Instruction

25

Which component of the nephron facilitates the selective reabsorption of essential substances such as glucose, amino acids, salts, and water back into the bloodstream?

A

Bowman’s capsule

B

Ureter

C

Glomerulus

D

Tubule

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The renal tubules, specifically the proximal convoluted tubules (PCT) and the loop of Henle, are primarily responsible for the selective reabsorption of essential substances in the nephron. As filtrate passes through these tubules, specialized cells lining their walls actively transport molecules such as glucose, amino acids, and ions back into the bloodstream.

Instruction

26

What could be a potential cause if a person experiences dislocation of two long bones in their hand due to an accident?

A

Ligament rupture

B

Areolar tissue rupture

C

Skeletal muscle tear

D

Tendon rupture

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The reason for the dislocation of two long bones in the hand after an accident is a rupture of ligaments. Ligaments are tough, fibrous connective tissues that connect bones to other bones in joints. They provide stability and support to the joints, preventing excessive movement. In the event of a severe force or trauma, such as an accident, the ligaments may tear or rupture, leading to joint instability and potential dislocation of the bones involved.

Instruction

27

Where are the hypothalamus, pineal gland, and pituitary gland situated?

A

Heart

B

Lungs

C

Brain

D

Kidneys

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The hypothalamus, pineal gland, and pituitary gland are situated in the brain. The hypothalamus plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions, the pineal gland secretes melatonin and regulates sleep-wake cycles, while the pituitary gland is often referred to as the "master gland" as it controls the release of hormones from other endocrine glands.

Instruction

28

What is the primary function of cytokinin in plants?

A

Enhance fruit quality

B

Inhibit the growth of lateral buds

C

Control the opening and closing of stomata

D

Promote cell division

E

Answer

D, Explanation: "stimulate cell division" refers to the primary function of cytokinin in plants. Cytokinin promotes cell division, leading to growth and development processes such as shoot and root elongation, leaf expansion, and overall plant growth. This hormone plays a crucial role in regulating various physiological processes, including cell division and differentiation, which are essential for plant growth, development, and response to environmental stimuli.

Instruction

29

Choose the correct code:

Assertion (A): Regeneration in animals serves as a strategy to evade predation.

Reason (R): These tactics encompass the reorganization of existing tissue.

A

Only A is true

B

Only B is true

C

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

D

Both A and B are false

E

Answer

D, Explanation: Regeneration primarily functions as a mechanism for repairing damaged tissue or replacing lost body parts rather than as a specific strategy to evade predation. Additionally, while regeneration may involve the rearrangement of existing tissue, it is not necessarily linked to the evasion of predators.

Instruction

30

From where is noscapine derived?

A

Ephedra

B

Poppy

C

Eucalyptus

D

Basil

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Noscapine is a naturally occurring alkaloid that is obtained from the opium poppy plant, Papaver somniferum. It is found in the latex of the plant and serves as a cough suppressant. Noscapine has been used for many years as a non-narcotic antitussive medication due to its ability to reduce coughing without causing significant sedation or addiction.

Instruction