31

Which ancient Indian civilization is known for its well-planned cities with sophisticated drainage systems, grid-like street layouts, and advanced urban planning?

A

Harappan Civilization

B

Vedic Civilization

C

Mauryan Empire

D

Gupta Empire

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Explanation: Harappan Civilization. The Harappan Civilization, also known as the Indus Valley Civilization, flourished around 2600 BCE to 1900 BCE in the northwestern regions of the Indian subcontinent, primarily in present-day Pakistan and northwest India. It is renowned for its advanced urban planning, characterized by meticulously planned cities such as Mohenjo-Daro and Harappa. These cities featured well-laid-out streets arranged in a grid-like pattern, sophisticated drainage systems, and robust architectural structures made of baked brick.

Instruction

32

Who established the Vijayanagara Empire?

A

Chandragupta Maurya

B

Ashoka

C

Harshavardhana

D

Harihara I

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The Vijayanagara Empire was established by Harihara I, also known as Harihara Raya I. This empire was founded in the 14th century in the coastal regions of southern India. The Vijayanagara Empire served as a cultural centre for various traditions and played a significant role in the cultural and political upliftment of the region.

Instruction

33

Which of the following ancient towns is renowned for its sophisticated system of water harvesting and management, achieved through the construction of a network of dams and channels to channel water into interconnected reservoirs?

A

Kalibangan

B

Ropar

C

Dholavira

D

Rakhigarhi

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Dholavira is an ancient town located in present-day Gujarat, India, belonging to the Harappan civilization. It is renowned for its sophisticated system of water harvesting and management, which is evident from the archaeological remains found at the site.

Instruction

34

Who was the ancient Indian philosopher and grammarian known for his significant contributions to linguistics, particularly for his work on phonetics, morphology, and syntax, laying down the foundations of the scientific study of language?

A

Panini

B

Patanjali

C

Bhartrihari

D

Kapila

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Panini was an ancient Indian scholar who lived around the 4th century BCE. He is renowned for his work "Ashtadhyayi," a comprehensive treatise on Sanskrit grammar. Panini's work not only systematized the grammar of Sanskrit but also laid down fundamental principles of linguistic analysis, which are still studied and revered by linguists worldwide. His contributions to linguistics are considered seminal, as he provided a structured framework for understanding the structure and function of language.

Instruction

35

Who among the following ancient Indian philosophers is credited with formulating the concept of "Anvikshiki," an interdisciplinary study encompassing logic, metaphysics, and epistemology, which laid the foundation for systematic philosophical inquiry in Indian tradition?

A

Jaimini

B

Kanada

C

Gotama

D

Yinavalkya

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Gotama. Gotama, also known as Gautama or Akshapada Gotama, is renowned for his contribution to Indian philosophy through his formulation of "Anvikshiki," often translated as "Science of Inquiry" or "Philosophical Analysis." Anvikshiki encompassed various fields such as logic (Nyaya), metaphysics (Vaiseshika), and epistemology (Pratyaksha), providing a systematic framework for philosophical inquiry in ancient India.

Instruction

36

Who among the following ancient Indian scholars is credited with the composition of "Arthashastra," an influential treatise on statecraft, economics, and military strategy, providing detailed insights into governance and administration during the Maurya Empire?

A

Chanakya

B

Vishnu Sharma

C

Vatsyayana

D

Valmiki

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Chanakya. Chanakya, also known as Kautilya or Vishnugupta, is credited with composing the "Arthashastra," a seminal work on politics, economics, and military strategy. This treatise offers comprehensive guidance on governance, statecraft, taxation, diplomacy, and warfare, reflecting the administrative practices of the Maurya Empire under Chandragupta Maurya.

Instruction

37

Which ancient Indian ruler, known for his military conquests and administrative reforms, is credited with the establishment of a well-organized centralized state, marked by efficient administration and the promotion of trade and commerce along the Silk Road?

A

Harshvardhana

B

Ashoka the Great

C

Samudragupta

D

Chandragupta Maurya

E

Answer

D, Explanation: Chandragupta Maurya. Chandragupta Maurya, the founder of the Maurya Empire, is credited with establishing a centralized state in ancient India. His reign witnessed significant territorial expansion through military conquests, leading to the unification of most of the Indian subcontinent under his rule. Chandragupta Maurya's administration was marked by efficient governance, including the establishment of a complex bureaucracy and a network of spies. He also played a crucial role in promoting trade and commerce, particularly along the Silk Road, fostering economic prosperity and cultural exchange within his empire.

Instruction

38

Who among the following medieval rulers is known as the founder of the Delhi Sultanate, establishing the Slave dynasty and marking the beginning of Muslim rule in the Indian subcontinent?

A

Alauddin Khilji

B

Muhammad Ghori

C

Qutb-ud-din Aibak

D

Iltutmish

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Qutb-ud-din Aibak. Qutb-ud-din Aibak, a Turkish slave of Muhammad Ghori, became the first Sultan of Delhi after Ghori's death. He laid the foundation of the Slave dynasty and established the Delhi Sultanate in 1206 AD, thus initiating Muslim rule in India. Qutb-ud-din Aibak's reign marked the beginning of a new era in Indian history, characterized by the dominance of Muslim rulers in the northern part of the subcontinent.

Instruction

39

Who was the medieval Indian ruler known for his military prowess and strategic brilliance, credited with the establishment of the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan region, which emerged as a significant political entity challenging the authority of the Delhi Sultanate?

A

Alauddin Khilji

B

Muhammad bin Tughlaq

C

Malik Kafur

D

Hasan Gangu Bahmani

E

Answer

D, Explanation: Hasan Gangu Bahmani, also known as Ala-ud-Din Hasan Bahman Shah, was a prominent noble under the Delhi Sultanate before establishing the Bahmani Sultanate in 1347 CE. His strategic military campaigns and administrative acumen led to the creation of a powerful Deccan Sultanate, which played a crucial role in shaping the political landscape of southern India.

Instruction

40

Who was the Indian revolutionary leader known for his pivotal role in organizing the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) in the early 20th century, aiming to overthrow British colonial rule through revolutionary means?

A

Chandrashekhar Azad

B

Ram Prasad Bismil

C

Ashfaqulla Khan

D

Batukeshwar Dutt

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Ram Prasad Bismil. Ram Prasad Bismil was a prominent revolutionary leader who played a crucial role in organizing the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) in the early 20th century. The HSRA aimed to overthrow British colonial rule through revolutionary means and was involved in various acts of resistance against British authorities.

Instruction

41

Who among the following Indian leaders was a key figure in the formation of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), a revolutionary organization established in the 1920s, advocating for complete independence from British rule through armed resistance?

A

Jawaharlal Nehru

B

Subhas Chandra Bose

C

Bhagat Singh

D

Vallabhbhai Patel

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Bhagat Singh. Bhagat Singh played a significant role in the formation of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), which aimed to overthrow British colonial rule in India through armed resistance. Along with other revolutionary leaders like Chandrashekhar Azad and Sukhdev Thapar, Bhagat Singh advocated for complete independence and fought against British oppression.

Instruction

42

Which event marked the beginning of Mahatma Gandhi's active involvement in India's struggle for independence and his emergence as a prominent leader of the Indian National Congress?

A

Non-Cooperation Movement

B

Champaran Satyagraha

C

Dandi March

D

Quit India Movement

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The Champaran Satyagraha, launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1917, marked the beginning of his active involvement in India's struggle for independence. It was Gandhi's first significant campaign in India, aimed at addressing the grievances of indigo farmers in Champaran, Bihar. Through this movement, Gandhi popularized the concept of satyagraha (nonviolent resistance) and emerged as a prominent leader of the Indian National Congress, laying the foundation for his future leadership in India's freedom struggle.

Instruction

43

Which of the following movements led by Mahatma Gandhi aimed at challenging the British-imposed salt tax and promoting the civil disobedience movement in India?

A

Bardoli Satyagraha

B

Quit India Movement

C

Non-Cooperation Movement

D

Dandi March

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The Dandi March, also known as the Salt Satyagraha, was a significant movement led by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930. It aimed to challenge the British monopoly on salt production and taxation by marching to the coastal village of Dandi in Gujarat and making salt from seawater. This symbolic act of defiance against British salt laws ignited a nationwide civil disobedience movement and played a crucial role in India's struggle for independence.

Instruction

44

Who was the Governor-General of India at the time of the annexation of Sindh to the British Empire?

A

Dalhousie

B

Elgin

C

Canning

D

Lord Ellenborough

E

Answer

D, Explanation: Lord Ellenborough served as the Governor-General of India from 1842 to 1844. During his tenure, the annexation of Sindh to the British Empire took place in 1843 AD. This annexation occurred under the leadership of Sir Charles Napier, a British general, who led the British forces in the conquest of Sindh.

Instruction

45

What was the primary cause behind the resignation of Congress Provincial Governments in November 1939?

A

Implementation of British Ordinance on public safety

B

British declaration of war (in WW-II) on behalf of India without consulting the Congress

C

Lack of authority and incapacity to enact substantial changes for the public

D

All of the aforementioned reasons

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Due to the British declaration of war (in WW-II) on behalf of India without consulting the Congress, it was decided at the CWC meeting at Wardha on 22-23 October 1939 not to cooperate with the British in the war. Additionally, it was decided that the Congress Provincial Governments would resign by the end of the month in protest.

Instruction

46

What contributed to the decline of the Portuguese Empire in India?

Lack of a robust leader following Albuquerque's demise

Administrative corruption

Misguided religious policies

Emergence of rival European powers

Choose the correct code:

A

Only 2

B

Only 3

C

Only 1 and 3

D

All of the above

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The decline of the Portuguese Empire in India can be attributed to several factors. After the death of Albuquerque, there was a lack of effective leadership capable of managing the entire administration. This leadership vacuum allowed corruption to thrive within the administration. Additionally, the Portuguese pursued aggressive tactics for the conversion of Christianity, which led to resentment among the local populace. Furthermore, the emergence of competing powers such as the Dutch and English challenged Portuguese control, ultimately resulting in their loss of dominance.

Instruction

47

During whose viceroyalty did the following incident occur?

Discussion of the C.R. Formula between Gandhiji and Jinnah occurred

Occurrence of the Royal Indian Navy Mutiny

Conducting the INA trial

Holding the first conference of the Constituent Assembly

Choose the correct option:

A

All of the above

B

Only 2 and 3

C

Only 4

D

Only 1, 2 and 3

E

Answer

A, Explanation: During Lord Wavell's viceroyalty, a series of noteworthy events unfolded in India. In 1944, discussions regarding the C.R. Formula between Mahatma Gandhi and Muhammad Ali Jinnah took place, signifying attempts towards political resolution. The Royal Indian Navy Mutiny shook the British administration on 18th February 1946, marking a significant protest against British rule among Indian sailors. Following this, the Indian National Army (INA) trial, held between November 1945 and May 1946, garnered widespread attention due to its implications for India's struggle for independence. Finally, the inaugural conference of the Constituent Assembly, held on 9th December 1946, laid the groundwork for independent India's constitutional framework. These events reflect the turbulence and dynamics of India's journey towards self-governance during Lord Wavell's tenure.

Instruction

48

Who authored the novel "Robinson Crusoe"?

A

Thomas Richardson

B

Daniel wellington

C

Harry Verelst

D

Daniel Defoe

E

Answer

D, Explanation: Daniel Defoe penned "Robinson Crusoe" in 1719. The novel portray the influence of Indian textile development on English households.

Instruction

49

Which authority granted permission for the establishment of the first British factory at Hoogly in Bengal?

A

Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah

B

Nawab Alivardi Khan

C

Shah Shuja

D

Emperor Aurangzeb

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Shah Shuja, the son of Shah Jahan and Mumtaz, granted permission for the establishment of the first British factory at Hoogly in Bengal. Shah Shuja served as the governor of Bengal and Odisha.

Instruction

50

For which movement did Vallabhbhai Patel earn the title of "Sardar" due to his leadership and success?

A

Kheda Satyagraha

B

Quit India Movement

C

Bardoli Satyagraha

D

Salt Satyagraha

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Following Mahatma Gandhi's emergence on the national political stage, Bardoli Taluka in Surat district underwent significant politicization. In February 1926, Vallabhbhai Patel was summoned to spearhead the movement. It was during this period that the women of Bardoli bestowed upon him the title of "Sardar."

Instruction

51

Which Mughal emperor is renowned for his "golden chain of justice"?

A

Akbar

B

Aurangzeb

C

Jahangir

D

Humayun

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Jahangir, the Mughal emperor, is renowned for his "chain of justice." He installed a lengthy golden chain with bells on his palace wall. Individuals subjected to injustice could approach the palace, pull the chain, and have their grievances heard for redressal.

Instruction

52

What is the complete name of Aurangzeb?

A

Muhi-ud-din Mohammed Aurangzeb

B

Nuruddin Mohammed Aurangzeb Bahadur

C

Jalal-ud-din Mohammed Aurangzeb Shah

D

Nasiruddin Mohammed Aurangzeb Shahanshah

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Muhi-ud-Din Muhammad, known as Aurangzeb or by his regnal title Alamgir, was the sixth Mughal emperor. He ruled for 49 years from 1658 until his death in 1707. Aurangzeb is often regarded as the last significant Mughal emperor.

Instruction

53

Who wrote the book "The First Indian War of Independence - 1857-59"?

A

V. D. Savarkar

B

R. C. Majumdar

C

Bipin Chandra

D

Karl Marx

E

Answer

D, Explanation: Karl Marx published an article titled 'The Indian Revolt' in the New-York Tribune in 1857, and later he wrote the book 'The First Indian War of Independence 1857-59.'

Instruction

54

In which year did the Kol Mutiny occur?

A

1857

B

1831

C

1896

D

1774

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The Kol Mutiny, also known as the Santhal Rebellion, took place in 1831-1832 in the Bengal Presidency of British India. It was a significant uprising led by the Santhal tribe, mainly inhabiting the region of present-day Jharkhand, Bihar, West Bengal, and Odisha.

Instruction

55

Under whose leadership did the Khasi uprising occur?

A

Seng Khasi

B

Rajnath Singh

C

Tirath Singh

D

Khasi Kala

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The Khasi uprising, led by Tirath Singh, was a revolt against British colonial rule in the Khasi Hills of present-day Meghalaya, India, during the 1820s. The uprising was sparked by British attempts to impose taxes and establish control over the region, leading to armed resistance by the Khasi people.

Instruction

56

Who viewed Jinnah as a symbol of Hindu-Muslim unity?

A

Vivekanand

B

Sarojini Naidu

C

B. G. Tilak

D

Gandhi

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Naidu actively participated in the Salt Satyagraha and the Quit India Movement, enduring imprisonment for her involvement in the fight for freedom. Her eloquence, leadership, and dedication to the cause of Indian independence earned her widespread respect and admiration across the nation.

Instruction

57

Which of the following poets lived through the Revolt of 1857?

A

Mir Taqi Mir

B

Ghalib

C

Sauda

D

Allama Iqbal

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Mirza Ghalib, one of the most renowned poets of the Urdu and Persian languages, indeed witnessed the Revolt of 1857. During this period, Ghalib was residing in Delhi, which was one of the epicenters of the revolt. His writings from this time provide a firsthand account of the tumultuous events of the uprising, capturing the atmosphere of uncertainty, chaos, and upheaval in the city.

Instruction

58

When was the introduction of the new Enfield Rifle with greased cartridges in the British Indian Army?

A

September, 1856

B

October, 1856

C

November, 1856

D

December, 1856

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The introduction of the new Enfield Rifle with greased cartridges in the British Indian Army played a significant role in the events leading up to the Revolt of 1857. The cartridges for this rifle were greased with animal fat, which offended the religious beliefs of both Hindu and Muslim soldiers in the army. This led to widespread discontent among the sepoys, contributing to the outbreak of the Revolt of 1857.

Instruction

59

Who was granted the title of Saheb-e-Alam Bahadur by Bahadur Shah during the 1857 uprising?

A

Nana Sahib

B

Bakht Khan

C

Tantia Tope

D

Bahadur Shah II

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Bakht Khan was a significant figure in the revolt, particularly known for his leadership during the siege of Delhi. His military skills and bravery earned him the respect and admiration of his peers, including Bahadur Shah II, who honored him with the title of Saheb-e-Alam Bahadur.

Instruction

60

What is the birthplace of Maharani Lakshmi Bai, the heroine of the 1857 freedom struggle?

A

Pune

B

Jhansi

C

Varanasi

D

Bithoor

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Maharani Lakshmi Bai, the renowned heroine of the 1857 freedom struggle, was born in Varanasi, not Jhansi. However, she became the queen of Jhansi after her marriage to Raja Gangadhar Rao Newalkar, the Maharaja of Jhansi. She played a pivotal role in the Indian Rebellion of 1857, leading her forces against the British during the siege of Jhansi. Her valor and leadership have made her an enduring symbol of resistance against colonial rule in India.

Instruction

61

Which of the following factors contributed significantly to India's economic growth in recent decades?

A

Implementation of Protectionist Policies

B

Heavy Reliance on Agriculture

C

Liberalization and Economic Reforms

D

Strict Control over Foreign Investment

E

Answer

C, Explanation: India's economic growth in recent decades has been primarily driven by liberalization and economic reforms initiated in the early 1990s. These reforms aimed to deregulate the economy, promote foreign investment, and foster competition, leading to increased productivity, efficiency, and integration into the global economy.

Instruction

62

Which of the following sectors has been a significant contributor to India's GDP growth in recent years?

A

Mining and Quarrying

B

Manufacturing

C

Construction

D

Services

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The services sector has been a significant contributor to India's GDP growth in recent years. This sector encompasses a wide range of activities such as banking, finance, IT services, telecommunications, healthcare, tourism, and hospitality. With the liberalization of the economy and technological advancements, India has witnessed substantial growth in service-related industries, leading to increased employment opportunities and overall economic development.

Instruction

63

According to the National Income Classification in India, which of the following is categorized under tertiary sector activities?

A

Manufacturing of Automobiles

B

Operation of a Software Development Company

C

Extraction of Iron Ore

D

Cultivation of Wheat

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Tertiary sector activities primarily involve the provision of services rather than the production of goods. Operating a software development company falls under the tertiary sector as it involves providing software-related services, such as software development, maintenance, and support, which contribute to the overall service-oriented economy of India.

Instruction

64

Which of the following economic indicators is used to measure the inequality of income distribution within a country?

A

GDP per capita

B

Gini coefficient

C

Consumer Price Index (CPI)

D

Purchasing Power Parity (PPP)

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The Gini coefficient is a statistical measure commonly used to assess income inequality within a population. It quantifies the extent to which the distribution of income among individuals or households within an economy deviates from a perfectly equal distribution. A higher Gini coefficient indicates greater income inequality, while a lower coefficient signifies more equal distribution of income.

Instruction

65

In the context of economic policy, what does the "Laffer Curve" depict and analyze?

A

The relationship between inflation and unemployment rates

B

The impact of fiscal policy on government revenue

C

The effects of trade liberalization on GDP growth

D

The relationship between tax rates and government revenue

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The Laffer Curve illustrates the concept that there exists an optimal tax rate at which government revenue is maximized. Initially, as tax rates increase, government revenue also increases, but beyond a certain point, higher tax rates lead to disincentives for work, investment, and production, ultimately reducing taxable income and government revenue. The Laffer Curve helps policymakers understand the trade-offs involved in tax policy decisions.

Instruction

66

Which economic term refers to the phenomenon where prices of goods and services rise consistently over time, leading to a decrease in the purchasing power of currency?

A

Deflation

B

Inflation

C

Stagflation

D

Hyperinflation

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Inflation is the persistent increase in the general price level of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. It erodes the purchasing power of money, as individuals can buy fewer goods and services with the same amount of currency.

Instruction

67

In the context of Indian economy, which of the following is a measure used to assess the overall health and growth of the manufacturing sector?

A

WPI (Wholesale Price Index)

B

IIP (Index of Industrial Production)

C

CPI (Consumer Price Index)

D

GDP (Gross Domestic Product)

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is a key indicator used in the Indian economy to measure the performance of the manufacturing, mining, and electricity sectors. It tracks changes in the volume of production of industrial goods over a specified period, providing insights into the overall health and growth of the manufacturing sector.

Instruction

68

Which of the following financial institutions in India serves as the principal regulator for ensuring the stability and efficiency of the country's banking and financial system?

A

Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

B

Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

C

National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)

D

Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as the central banking institution and the principal regulator of India's banking and financial system. It formulates and implements monetary policy, regulates banks and non-banking financial institutions, and oversees the functioning of financial markets to ensure stability and efficiency in the economy.

Instruction

69

Which of the following measures is used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to regulate the money supply in the economy?

A

Repo Rate

B

Consumer Price Index (CPI)

C

Securities Transaction Tax (STT)

D

Gross Domestic Product (GDP)

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The Repo Rate is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks for short-term purposes. By adjusting the Repo Rate, the RBI influences the liquidity in the economy. A higher Repo Rate reduces the money supply as borrowing becomes costlier for banks, whereas a lower Repo Rate increases liquidity by making borrowing cheaper. Thus, the Repo Rate serves as a tool for the RBI to regulate the money supply and control inflation.

Instruction

70

Who has the authority to appoint the Chief Justice of India (CJI) in India?

A

President of India

B

Prime Minister of India

C

Chief Justice of India himself/herself

D

Parliament of India

E

Answer

A, Explanation: In India, the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is appointed by the President of India. The President appoints the CJI based on the recommendations of the collegium system, which consists of the Chief Justice of India and a group of senior judges of the Supreme Court.

Instruction

71

In India, which constitutional amendment act introduced the provision of anti-defection law?

A

52nd Amendment Act

B

73rd Amendment Act

C

91st Amendment Act

D

97th Amendment Act

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 introduced the Tenth Schedule to the Indian Constitution, commonly known as the anti-defection law. This law aims to prevent political defections by disqualifying members of Parliament and state legislatures who defect from their party without following the prescribed procedures. It was enacted to uphold the principles of party discipline and integrity in the political process.

Instruction

72

Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission to recommend the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the States?

A

Article 280

B

Article 356

C

Article 368

D

Article 243

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Article 280 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission by the President of India. The Finance Commission is tasked with making recommendations on the distribution of financial resources between the Union government and the State governments, as well as among the States themselves. It plays a crucial role in ensuring fiscal federalism and equitable distribution of resources in India.

Instruction

73

Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha (House of the People)?

A

Article 74

B

Article 356

C

Article 85

D

Article 83

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Article 85 of the Indian Constitution provides the President of India with the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament. The dissolution of the Lok Sabha may occur either at the recommendation of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister or when no political party has the majority to form a government after a general election. This provision ensures the functioning of the democratic process by allowing for fresh elections to be conducted.

Instruction

74

Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the imposition of President's Rule (also known as State Emergency) in a state in India?

A

Article 352

B

Article 360

C

Article 356

D

Article 365

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Article 356 of the Indian Constitution deals with the imposition of President's Rule or State Emergency in a state in India. It empowers the President to assume the functions of the state government when there is a failure of the constitutional machinery in a state. President's Rule is imposed by the President on the recommendation of the Governor of the state or if the Governor's report regarding the breakdown of constitutional machinery in the state is received by the President.

Instruction

75

Which article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor of a state to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offense against state law?

A

Article 72

B

Article 161

C

Article 143

D

Article 356

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Article 161 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor of a state to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offense against state law.

Instruction

76

According to the Indian Constitution, which article provides the President with the power to appoint the Prime Minister of India?

A

Article 75

B

Article 74

C

Article 76

D

Article 77

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Article 75 of the Indian Constitution provides the President with the power to appoint the Prime Minister of India. The President appoints the Prime Minister, who is usually the leader of the majority party or coalition in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament.

Instruction

77

Under which article of the Indian Constitution does the President have the power to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session?

A

Article 123

B

Article 124

C

Article 126

D

Article 129

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Article 123 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session, provided that immediate action is required. An ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament but is temporary in nature and must be approved by both houses of Parliament within a stipulated period. This provision allows the executive to address urgent legislative matters when Parliament is not in session.

Instruction

78

Which year saw the enactment of the Regulating Act, marking the beginning of British parliamentary intervention in the administration of British India?

A

1765

B

1773

C

1784

D

1793

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The Regulating Act was passed by the British Parliament in 1773. This Act marked the beginning of British parliamentary intervention in the administration of British India.

Instruction

79

What significant constitutional change was introduced by the Regulating Act of 1773 regarding the governance of British India?

A

Establishment of the Governor-General of Bengal

B

Creation of the Supreme Court of India

C

Abolition of the East India Company's monopoly on trade with India

D

Formation of elected legislative assemblies in Indian provinces

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The Regulating Act of 1773 introduced the significant constitutional change of establishing the office of the Governor-General of Bengal. This position held supreme authority over British India and marked the beginning of centralized control by the British Crown over the administration of its territories in the subcontinent.

Instruction

80

What is the estimated total expenditure in the Union Budget for the fiscal year 2024-25?

A

₹47.65 lakh crore

B

₹49.65 lakh crore

C

₹45.65 lakh crore

D

₹42.65 lakh crore

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The estimated total expenditure in the Union Budget for the fiscal year 2024-25 is ₹47.65 lakh crore, with a significant focus on capital expenditure.

Instruction

81

What is the estimated fiscal deficit for the fiscal year 2024-25 as a percentage of Nominal GDP?

A

5.1%

B

4.5%

C

6.5%

D

7.2%

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The fiscal deficit for the fiscal year 2024-25 is projected at ₹16.85 lakh crore, constituting 5.1% of the Nominal GDP.

Instruction

82

Which sector receives the highest allocation in the Union Budget for the fiscal year 2024-25?

A

Defence

B

Education

C

Agriculture and Allied Activities

D

Health

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The highest allocation in the budget for FY 2024-25 is for the Defence sector, with ₹4,54,773 crore earmarked, emphasizing the government's commitment to national security and defense infrastructure development.

Instruction

83

In the Union Budget for the fiscal year 2024-25, what is the total allocation for the Ministry of Education?

A

₹1.24 Lakh Crore

B

₹90,171 Crore

C

₹1,77,000 Crore

D

₹2.03 Lakh Crore

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The Ministry of Education receives a significant allocation of ₹1.24 Lakh Crore in the Union Budget for the fiscal year 2024-25. This underscores the government's emphasis on investing in education for national progress.

Instruction

84

Which ambitious initiative has been launched by the Indian government under Prime Minister Narendra Modi's leadership?

A

PRITHVI VIGYAN Scheme

B

PRITHVI Science Initiative

C

Earth Sciences Revolution Scheme

D

Earth Systems Transformation Program

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The Indian government, led by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has launched the PRITHVI (PRITHVI VIGYAN) Scheme, an ambitious initiative by the Ministry of Earth Sciences aimed at revolutionizing the understanding and interaction with various Earth systems in India.

Instruction

85

Who were the joint winners of the Cleanest City title in the Swachh Survekshan Awards 2023?

A

Indore and Varanasi

B

Surat and Varanasi

C

Indore and Surat

D

Varanasi and Prayagraj

E

Answer

C, Explanation: In the Swachh Survekshan Awards 2023, Indore and Surat were jointly awarded the Cleanest City title. Indore secured this title for the seventh consecutive time, sharing the honor with Surat for the first time.

Instruction

86

Who recently launched a series of commemorative postage stamps dedicated to Ayodhya’s Ram Temple?

A

President Ram Nath Kovind

B

Prime Minister Narendra Modi

C

Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath

D

Union Minister Amit Shah

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently launched a series of commemorative postage stamps dedicated to Ayodhya’s Ram Temple, marking a significant cultural event in India.

Instruction

87

Which of the following statements about Republic Day 2024 is correct?

A

Republic Day in India is celebrated on January 15th every year.

B

Republic Day commemorates the enactment of the Constitution of India in 1947.

C

The theme for Republic Day 2024 is "Viksit Bharat" (Developed India) and "Bharat – Loktantra ki Matruka" (India – Mother of Democracy).

D

The Chief Guest for Republic Day 2024 is Angela Merkel, the Chancellor of Germany.

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The theme for Republic Day 2024 is "Viksit Bharat" (Developed India) and "Bharat – Loktantra ki Matruka" (India – Mother of Democracy).

Instruction

88

Which of the following statements regarding the Finance Ministry's actions and the "Indian Economy – A Review" report is correct?

A

In 2024, India will have the usual Economic Survey presented before the Union Budget.

B

Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman will present an interim budget, known as a vote-on-account, on February 1, 2024.

C

The Ministry of Finance released an official Economic Survey instead of the "Indian Economy – A Review" report.

D

The "Indian Economy – A Review" report replaces the official Economic Survey and is presented annually before the Union Budget.

E

Answer

B, Explanation: In 2024, instead of the Economic Survey, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman will present an interim budget, known as a vote-on-account, on February 1.

Instruction

89

Which of the following statements regarding India's outward Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) commitments in December 2023 is correct?

A

India's outward FDI commitments increased to $4.12 billion in December 2023.

B

India's outward FDI commitments remained constant at $4.0 billion in December 2023 compared to November 2023.

C

India's outward FDI commitments sharply declined to $2.25 billion in December 2023 compared to December 2022.

D

India's outward FDI commitments saw a sequential increase to $4.0 billion in December 2023 compared to November 2023.

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The statement aligns with the information provided that India witnessed a sharp decline in its outward Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) commitments, dropping to $2.25 billion in December 2023, as revealed by data from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Instruction

90

Which of the following individuals is set to be honored with the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, for their significant contributions to the nation?

A

PV Narasimha Rao

B

Mother Teresa

C

Jawaharlal Nehru

D

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

E

Answer

A, Explanation: PV Narasimha Rao, often hailed as the Architect of Modern India, is one of the distinguished individuals set to receive the Bharat Ratna. His visionary leadership and bold reforms in the early 1990s played a crucial role in India's economic liberalization and integration into the global economy.

Instruction

91

Which of the following statements accurately summarizes Prime Minister Narendra Modi's two-day visit to the United Arab Emirates (UAE)?

A

Prime Minister Modi's visit to the UAE was marked by tense discussions and minimal cooperation between the two nations.

B

President Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan greeted Prime Minister Modi at the airport, emphasizing the strained relations between the leaders.

C

Several agreements, including a Bilateral Investment Treaty and an Intergovernmental Framework Agreement on the India-Middle East Economic Corridor, were signed during Prime Minister Modi's visit, indicating enhanced economic cooperation between India and the UAE.

D

Prime Minister Modi's visit to the UAE did not involve any significant discussions or agreements, reflecting a lack of interest in strengthening bilateral relations.

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Several agreements, including a Bilateral Investment Treaty and an Intergovernmental Framework Agreement on the India-Middle East Economic Corridor, were signed during Prime Minister Modi's visit, indicating enhanced economic cooperation between India and the UAE.

Instruction

92

Which of the following statements accurately summarizes the recipients of the Jnanpith Award for the year 2023?

A

Gulzar is a renowned Bollywood actor who has made significant contributions to Indian cinema.

B

Jagadguru Rambhadracharya is a prominent figure in Urdu poetry and has won numerous awards for his literary works.

C

Gulzar is a celebrated Urdu poet and Bollywood personality, while Jagadguru Rambhadracharya is a distinguished Sanskrit scholar and spiritual leader.

D

Both Gulzar and Jagadguru Rambhadracharya have won the Nobel Prize in Literature for their outstanding contributions to Indian literature.

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Gulzar is a celebrated Urdu poet and Bollywood personality, while Jagadguru Rambhadracharya is a distinguished Sanskrit scholar and spiritual leader.

Instruction

93

Which of the following statements accurately summarizes India's position in the Global Intellectual Property Index 2024?

A

India ranked 55th out of 55 countries evaluated, indicating a lack of progress in strengthening its IP framework.

B

India secured the 42nd position out of the 55 countries evaluated, with an overall score of 38.64 percent, highlighting ongoing challenges and opportunities for improvement in its IP framework.

C

India topped the index with the highest score of 95.48 percent, showcasing its robust IP framework and fostering innovation and economic growth.

D

India ranked third after the United States and the United Kingdom, emphasizing its leading role in global IP rights protection.

E

Answer

B, Explanation: India secured the 42nd position out of the 55 countries evaluated, with an overall score of 38.64 percent, highlighting ongoing challenges and opportunities for improvement in its IP framework.

Instruction

94

Which of the following statements accurately reflects the recent development regarding the Violence and Harassment Convention 2019 (No. 190)?

A

The Philippines has become the first European country to ratify the convention, signifying its commitment to addressing workplace violence and harassment.

B

The International Labor Organization (ILO) recently announced the ratification of the Violence and Harassment Convention 2019 (No. 190) by the Philippines, making it the first Asian country to do so.

C

The Violence and Harassment Convention 2019 (No. 190) primarily focuses on environmental issues, neglecting the aspect of workplace safety and respect.

D

The convention has been ratified by multiple Asian countries, indicating a collective effort to combat workplace violence and harassment.

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The International Labor Organization (ILO) recently announced the ratification of the Violence and Harassment Convention 2019 (No. 190) by the Philippines, making it the first Asian country to do so.

Instruction

95

Which Indian state recently achieved a significant milestone by implementing the Uniform Civil Code (UCC)?

A

Gujarat

B

Uttarakhand

C

Maharashtra

D

Rajasthan

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Uttarakhand has achieved a momentous milestone in India's legislative landscape by becoming the first state to enact the Uniform Civil Code (UCC). Spearheaded by Chief Minister Pushkar Singh Dhami, the state Assembly successfully passed the UCC Bill, marking a groundbreaking initiative.

Instruction

96

Which Indian state government recently announced a groundbreaking initiative known as the 'bag-less school' policy?

A

Gujarat

B

Madhya Pradesh

C

Maharashtra

D

Rajasthan

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The Madhya Pradesh government's introduction of the 'bag-less school' policy is aimed at revolutionizing the educational landscape and promoting holistic development among students.

Instruction

97

Which Indian state recently launched the 'Van Mitra' scheme and its accompanying portal to promote community engagement in afforestation efforts?

A

Haryana

B

Gujarat

C

Maharashtra

D

Rajasthan

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Haryana Chief Minister Manohar Lal Khattar inaugurated the 'Van Mitra' scheme and its accompanying portal as a significant move towards environmental conservation, aiming to foster community participation in afforestation initiatives across non-forest areas of the state.

Instruction

98

Who has been appointed as the new Country Director for India by the Asian Development Bank (ADB), succeeding Takeo Konishi?

A

Mio Oka

B

Takeo Konishi

C

Manoj Sharma

D

Ramesh Patel

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has appointed Mio Oka as its new Country Director for India, succeeding Takeo Konishi. Ms. Oka brings nearly three decades of professional experience, including over 18 years with ADB, to her new role. Her appointment signifies a significant milestone in ADB's continued partnership with India in supporting its development goals and economic growth.

Instruction

99

What is the mascot for the Khelo India Winter Games 2024?

A

Snow Bear

B

Snow Leopard

C

Snow Tiger

D

Snow Fox

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The mascot for the Khelo India Winter Games 2024 is the majestic snow leopard, named 'Sheen-e She' or 'Shan' in the Ladakh region. The snow leopard, native to the high-altitude areas of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh, symbolizes the spirit of the Games and highlights the importance of conserving this endangered species.

Instruction

100

The expansive region of Balthar soil in Bihar encompasses which area?

A

Northern region of Bihar

B

Middle of Ganga

C

Southern area of Ganga

D

South west of Ganga

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The spread area of Balthar soil in Bihar predominantly lies in the southwest region of the Ganga River.

Instruction

101

In which regions is the Balsundari soil found in Bihar?

A

Bhagalpur-Samastipur-Khagaria

B

Rajgir-West Champaran-Darbhanga

C

Saharsa-Saran-Darbhanga

D

Patna-Saharsa-East Champaran

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The Balsundari soil is primarily found in the Saharsa, Saran, Darbhanga and Muzaffarpur regions of Bihar.

Instruction

102

Who led the Salt Satyagraha movement in Bihar?

A

Mahatma Gandhi

B

Rajendra Prasad

C

Jayaprakash Narayan

D

Anugrah Narayan Sinha

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Rajendra Prasad, who later became the first President of India, indeed led the Salt Satyagraha movement in Bihar. He was an influential figure in the Indian independence movement and played a pivotal role in various acts of civil disobedience against British rule, including the Salt Satyagraha.

Instruction

103

Who extended an invitation to Kunwar Singh to meet him at Patna?

A

Lord Canning

B

Sir John Lawrence

C

Lord Cornwallis

D

Tayler

E

Answer

D, Explanation: William Tayler, the English officer serving as the Lieutenant Governor of Bihar, invited Kunwar Singh to meet him at Patna. This invitation was a significant diplomatic gesture aimed at resolving conflicts and fostering dialogue between the British authorities and the Indian rebel leaders during the uprising of 1857.

Instruction

104

Which of the following works is not attributed to Kalidasa?

A

Meghaduta

B

Kumarasambhava

C

Dashakumaracharita

D

Vikramorvashi

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Through his works, Kalidasa not only showcases his unparalleled command over language and poetic imagery but also offers timeless insights into the human condition, leaving an indelible mark on literature for centuries to come.

Instruction

105

Which of the following Indian rivers does not originate from the Western Ghats?

A

Godavari

B

Krishna

C

Cauvery

D

Tungabhadra

E

Answer

A, Explanation: While the rivers Krishna, Cauvery, and Tungabhadra originate from the Western Ghats, the Godavari river originates from the Brahmagiri range of the Eastern Ghats.

Instruction

106

Which of the following Indian states does not share a border with Bhutan?

A

Sikkim

B

Arunachal Pradesh

C

Assam

D

Nagaland

E

Answer

D, Explanation: Nagaland is the correct answer because it does not share a border with Bhutan. While Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and Assam all share borders with Bhutan, Nagaland is located further east and does not share a direct border with the neighboring country.

Instruction

107

Which of the following Indian states had the highest percentage of forest cover according to the India State of Forest Report 2021?

A

Mizoram

B

Arunachal Pradesh

C

Madhya Pradesh

D

Chhattisgarh

E

Answer

A, Explanation: According to the India State of Forest Report 2021, Mizoram had the highest percentage of forest cover among the given options. Mizoram is known for its dense forests and rich biodiversity, making it one of the states with the highest forest cover in India.

Instruction

108

Which Indian state has the largest number of notified national parks?

A

Madhya Pradesh

B

Karnataka

C

Uttarakhand

D

Assam

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Madhya Pradesh boasts the largest number of notified national parks among the given options. The state is renowned for its rich biodiversity and is home to several prominent national parks, making it a significant hub for wildlife conservation efforts in India.

Instruction

109

Which river forms the famous Jog Falls, also known as Gerosoppa Falls, in Karnataka?

A

Krishna

B

Godavari

C

Cauvery

D

Sharavathi

E

Answer

D, Explanation: Jog Falls, one of the highest waterfalls in India, is formed by the Sharavathi River in the state of Karnataka. The river plunges from a height of about 253 meters, creating a magnificent natural spectacle.

Instruction

110

Which of the following ranges is not a part of the Himalayas?

A

Pir Panjal Range

B

Dhauladhar Range

C

Satpura Range

D

Zanskar Range

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The Satpura Range is not part of the Himalayan range. The Pir Panjal Range, Dhauladhar Range, and Zanskar Range are all located in different parts of the Himalayas.

Instruction

111

Which of the following countries does not border the Mediterranean Sea?

A

Spain

B

Italy

C

Greece

D

Austria

E

Answer

D, Explanation: Austria, does not border the Mediterranean Sea. Austria is a landlocked country located in Central Europe, surrounded by other landlocked countries such as Germany, Czech Republic, Slovakia, Hungary, Slovenia, Italy, and Switzerland. Therefore, it does not have a coastline along the Mediterranean Sea.

Instruction

112

Which of the following islands is not part of the Lesser Antilles?

A

Barbados

B

Martinique

C

Trinidad

D

Grenada

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Trinidad is not part of the Lesser Antilles. It is located further west, off the northern coast of South America, and is considered part of the larger Caribbean region. The Lesser Antilles, on the other hand, is a group of islands in the eastern Caribbean Sea.

Instruction

113

Which of the following countries is not located in the African continent?

A

Madagascar

B

Somalia

C

Seychelles

D

Papua New Guinea

E

Answer

D, Explanation: Papua New Guinea is not located in the African continent. It is actually situated in the southwestern Pacific Ocean and is part of the continent of Oceania.

Instruction

114

Which of the following mountain ranges is not located in Europe?

A

Alps

B

Pyrenees

C

Ural Mountains

D

Rocky Mountains

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The Rocky Mountains are not located in Europe. They are situated in North America, spanning several U.S. states and Canadian provinces.

Instruction

115

Which of the following environmental pollutants is considered a persistent organic pollutant (POP) and has been banned globally due to its harmful effects on human health and the environment?

A

Lead

B

Mercury

C

DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane)

D

Arsenic

E

Answer

C, Explanation: DDT is a persistent organic pollutant (POP) that has been widely used as an insecticide. However, due to its long-lasting effects in the environment, bioaccumulation in organisms, and harmful impacts on wildlife and human health, DDT has been banned or severely restricted in many countries around the world.

Instruction