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101	What is the focus of ISRO's Space Missions set for 2024?
A	To explore the atmosphere of Venus and study its climatic conditions.
B	To investigate the polarization of intense X-ray sources in the universe.
C	To launch a dual-frequency synthetic aperture radar satellite for Earth remote sensing.
D	To conduct a test flight involving three crew members as part of India's Human Spaceflight Programme.
E
Answer	C, Explanation: The focus of ISRO's Space Missions set for 2024 includes launching a dual-frequency synthetic aperture radar satellite called NISAR for Earth remote sensing, providing insights into various Earth systems such as ecosystems, ice mass, vegetation biomass, and natural hazards.
Instruction

102	What is the significance of the lithium deal between India and Argentina?
A	It aims to explore the atmosphere of Venus and study its climatic conditions.
B	It seeks to investigate the polarization of intense X-ray sources in the universe.
C	It involves the acquisition and development of lithium blocks for potential extraction and commercialization.
D	It involves entering into a non-disclosure agreement for possible exploration, extraction, processing, and commercialization of lithium.
E
Answer	C, Explanation: The lithium deal between India and Argentina involves a draft exploration and development agreement for the acquisition and development of lithium blocks, highlighting the potential for extraction and commercialization of lithium resources.
Instruction

103	What initiative was launched in 1973 with the primary objective of ensuring the survival and maintenance of the tiger population in their natural habitats?
A	Project Elephant
B	Project Rhino
C	Project Leopard
D	Project Tiger
E
Answer	D, Explanation: Project Tiger is a wildlife conservation initiative launched in 1973 with the primary objective of ensuring the survival and maintenance of the tiger population in their natural habitats.
Instruction

104	What is the primary threat to the Northeast African Cheetah population?
A	Habitat loss and human encroachment
B	Climate change and natural disasters
C	Competition with other predator species
D	Genetic mutations and diseases
E
Answer	A, Explanation: The primary threat to the Northeast African Cheetah population is habitat loss and human encroachment, along with hunting and illegal trade in cubs to Arab countries.
Instruction

105	What is the primary objective of sustainable agriculture?
A	Maximizing short-term yields at the expense of long-term environmental health.
B	Focusing solely on economic profitability without considering environmental impact.
C	Ensuring the long-term viability of agricultural systems while preserving natural resources.
D	Implementing practices that prioritize convenience for farmers over sustainability.
E
Answer	C, Explanation: Sustainable agriculture aims to ensure the long-term viability of agricultural systems while preserving natural resources for future generations. It involves holistic practices that consider environmental stewardship, economic profitability, and social equity.
Instruction

106	Which Indian chess prodigy secured victory in the World Chess Armageddon Asia & Oceania?
A	Gukesh
B	Nihal Sarin
C	Bishan Bedi
D	Erigaisi
E
Answer	A, Explanation: Sixteen-year-old Indian Grandmaster D Gukesh achieved a remarkable victory in the final of the World Chess Armageddon Asia & Oceania, stunning former world rapid champion Nodirbek Abdusattorov of Uzbekistan.
Instruction

107	Which sport is Murali Sreeshankar associated with, as recently seen in the news?
A	Wrestling
B	Cricket
C	Chess
D	Long Jump
E
Answer	D, Explanation: Murali Sreeshankar of India retained his championship title in the men's long jump event at the International Jumping Meeting 2023 held in Kallithea, Greece.
Instruction

108	What is 'BioTRIG', as recently featured in the news?
A	Waste management innovation
B	Environmental conservation approach
C	Robot designed for tank cleaning
D	Pest control method in agriculture
E
Answer	A, Explanation: The BioTRIG is a groundbreaking waste management technology that utilizes pyrolysis to address indoor air pollution, improve soil health, and produce clean energy in rural India. Operating at the community level, it processes locally sourced waste to generate bio-oil, syngas, and biochar fertilizer.
Instruction

109	Which ministry recently signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with ISRO for Urban Frame Survey utilizing Bhuvan?
A	Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
B	Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
C	Ministry of Commerce and Industry
D	Ministry of Home Affairs
E
Answer	B, Explanation: The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has forged a strategic partnership with ISRO to conduct the Urban Frame Survey (UFS) utilizing Bhuvan, ISRO's geoportal. UFS, managed by the Field Operations Division (FOD) of NSSO, adopts compact units in urban areas housing 120-150 households.
Instruction

110	Which day is designated as National Safety Day in India?
A	4 March
B	4 Feb
C	4 Jan
D	4 Dec
E
Answer	A, Explanation: National Safety Day is observed annually on March 4 in India, marking the commencement of National Safety Week. With a focus on safety and precautionary measures across various sectors, the theme for 2024 is "Safety for a Sustainable Future."
Instruction

111	Which of the following mountain ranges is not located in Europe?
A	Alps
B	Pyrenees
C	Ural Mountains
D	Rocky Mountains
E
Answer	D, Explanation: The Rocky Mountains (Option D) are located primarily in North America, extending from Canada to the United States, and are not found in Europe.
Instruction

112	Which of the following is not a landlocked country in Africa?
A	Chad
B	Zimbabwe
C	Kenya
D	Niger
E
Answer	C, Explanation: Kenya (Option C) is the only coastal country among the options provided. It has a coastline along the Indian Ocean in East Africa. Chad (Option A), Zimbabwe (Option B), and Niger (Option D) are all landlocked countries in Africa, surrounded entirely by land and lacking direct access to any ocean or sea. Therefore, the correct answer is C) Kenya.
Instruction

113	Which of the following statements about the India State of Forest Report 2021 is NOT true?
A	The report is published annually by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
B	The Forest Survey of India (FSI) conducts survey and assessment of forest resources in India.
C	The ISFR 2021 includes a new chapter on the assessment of forest cover in Tiger Reserves, Corridors, and Lion conservation areas.
D	FSI collaborated with Space Application Centre (SAC), ISRO, Ahmedabad, to estimate Above Ground Biomass (AGB) using Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) data.
E
Answer	A, Explanation: The India State of Forest Report (ISFR) is a biennial publication, not an annual one. It is prepared by the Forest Survey of India (FSI) under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Options B, C, and D correctly describe various aspects of the ISFR 2021 as discussed in the passage.
Instruction

114	What is one of the new initiatives included in the India State of Forest Report 2021?
A	Assessment of forest cover in urban areas
B	Estimation of marine biodiversity
C	Evaluation of agricultural land use within forested regions
D	Assessment of forest cover in Tiger Reserves, Corridors, and Lion conservation areas
E
Answer	D, Explanation: One of the new initiatives introduced in the India State of Forest Report 2021 is the assessment of forest cover in Tiger Reserves, Corridors, and Lion conservation areas. This addition helps in evaluating the impact of conservation measures and management interventions implemented in these critical wildlife habitats.
Instruction

115	What is the objective of the "Bihar Laghu Udyami Yojana" recently approved by the Bihar government?
A	To provide financial assistance to students from Extremely Backward Classes (EBCs) for civil services exams.
B	To provide financial assistance to poor families to create self-employment opportunities.
C	To provide financial assistance to Other Backward Classes (OBCs) for competitive exams.
D	To provide financial assistance to general category families for setting up small industrial units.
E
Answer	B, Explanation: The "Bihar Laghu Udyami Yojana" scheme aims to provide financial assistance to over 9.4 million poor families in Bihar to create self-employment opportunities. The scheme intends to support families with monthly incomes less than ₹6,000 by providing grants up to ₹2 lakh to set up and run small industrial or processing units.
Instruction

116	What is the projected Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Bihar for the financial year 2024-25?
A	Rs 9.76 lakh crore
B	Rs 2,56,333 crore
C	Rs 22,393 crore
D	Rs 1,121 crore
E
Answer	A, Explanation: The projected Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Bihar for the financial year 2024-25 is Rs 9.76 lakh crore, as stated in the budget highlights.
Instruction

117	In 2022-23, which sector is estimated to contribute the highest percentage to Bihar's economy at current prices?
A	Agriculture
B	Manufacturing
C	Services
D	None of the above
E
Answer	C, Explanation: In 2022-23, the services sector is estimated to contribute the highest percentage (58%) to Bihar's economy at current prices, as mentioned in the given details. Options A and B represent agriculture and manufacturing sectors, respectively, which are estimated to contribute 25% and 17% to the economy. Therefore, the correct answer is C) Services.
Instruction

118	Which initiative has mobilized a total of 8.7 crore women from poor and vulnerable communities into 81 lakh Self-Help Groups (SHGs)?
A	Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
B	National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme
C	Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP) initiative
D	Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihood Mission
E
Answer	D, Explanation: The Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihood Mission has mobilized a total of 8.7 crore women from poor and vulnerable communities into 81 lakh Self-Help Groups (SHGs).
Instruction

119	What is India's target for reducing the emissions intensity of its GDP by 2030 from 2005 levels?
A	30%
B	40%
C	45%
D	50%
E
Answer	C, Explanation: India aims to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 45% by 2030 from 2005 levels, as mentioned in the provided details. This target is part of India's efforts to combat climate change and environmental challenges.
Instruction

120	What was India's merchandise export value in FY22?
A	US$ 254.5 billion
B	US$ 422.0 billion
C	US$ 563 billion
D	US$ 19.2%
E
Answer	B, Explanation: India's merchandise export reached an all-time high of US$ 422.0 billion in FY22, as mentioned in the provided details.
Instruction

121	Which river forms the western boundary of Bihar?
A	Ganges
B	Kosi
C	Son
D	Gandak
E
Answer	D, Explanation: The Gandak River forms the western boundary of Bihar. It originates in Nepal and flows through Bihar before joining the Ganges River.
Instruction

122	The region of Bihar that is known for its fertile alluvial soil and extensive agriculture is:
A	Bhojpur
B	Mithila
C	Champaran
D	Magadh
E
Answer	C, Explanation: Champaran, located in the northern part of Bihar, is renowned for its fertile alluvial soil and extensive agricultural activities. It is famous for being the site where Mahatma Gandhi initiated his Satyagraha movement against the oppressive indigo planters.
Instruction

123	The 'Valmiki Tiger Reserve', located in the western region of Bihar, is situated along the banks of which river?
A	Ganges
B	Son
C	Gandak
D	Kosi
E
Answer	C, Explanation: The 'Valmiki Tiger Reserve' is situated along the banks of the Gandak River. It is located in the western region of Bihar, developed along the banks of the Gandak River.
Instruction

124	In which district of Bihar is the 'Surya Mandir', the world's largest solar temple, located?
A	Aurangabad
B	Araria
C	Banka
D	Bhagalpur
E
Answer	A, Explanation: The 'Surya Mandir', the world's largest solar temple, is situated in the Aurangabad district of Bihar.
Instruction

125	The Kaimur plateau in Bihar is rich in which mineral?
A	Bauxite
B	Limestone
C	Iron Ore
D	Copper
E
Answer	B, Explanation: The Kaimur plateau in Bihar is rich in limestone deposits. Limestone mining is a significant activity in this region, contributing to Bihar's mineral wealth and industrial development.
Instruction

126	Who was the founder of the medieval kingdom of Magadh in Bihar?
A	Bimbisara
B	Chandragupta Maurya
C	Ashoka the Great
D	Ajatashatru
E
Answer	A, Explanation: Bimbisara, the son of King Bhattiya, is regarded as the founder of the medieval kingdom of Magadh in Bihar. He was one of the earliest rulers of the Haryanka dynasty.
Instruction

127	The first Brahmana state in Magadh was established by whom?
A	Bimbisara
B	Chandragupta Maurya
C	Pushyamitra
D	Ajatashatru
E
Answer	C, Explanation: The establishment of the first Brahmana state in Magadh is attributed to Pushyamitra. He was a ruler of the Shunga dynasty and is believed to have established Brahmanical dominance in the Magadhan region during ancient times.
Instruction

128	The power of the Kanva dynasty was brought to an end by whom?
A	Andras
B	Pushyamitra
C	Agnimitra
D	Kushans
E
Answer	A, Explanation: The power of the Kanva dynasty was put to an end by the Andhras. They overthrew the Kanva rulers and established their dominance in the region.
Instruction

129	Who emerged victorious in the battle against Harisimha Deva, the ruler of the Karnata dynasty?
A	Firoz Tughlaq
B	Alauddin Khilji
C	Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
D	Iltutmish
E
Answer	C, Explanation: Karnata dynasty ruler Harisimha Deva was defeated by Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq in historical records.
Instruction

130	What was the capital of Bihar during the reign of the Tughlaq dynasty?
A	Patliputra
B	Rajgir
C	Sasaram
D	Bihar Sharif
E
Answer	D, Explanation: Bihar Sharif served as the capital of Bihar during the reign of the Tughlaq dynasty.
Instruction

131	When was the Patna Yuvak Sangh formed?
A	1925
B	1927
C	1945
D	1955
E
Answer	B, Explanation: The Patna Yuvak Sangh was formed in 1927, aiming to address the socio-cultural and developmental needs of the youth in Patna.
Instruction

132	From which of the following dates did the Salt Satyagraha in Patna commence?
A	April 16, 1930
B	March 12, 1930
C	March 12, 1931
D	April 6, 1931
E
Answer	A, Explanation: The Salt Satyagraha in Patna commenced on April 16, 1930, as part of the larger Civil Disobedience Movement led by Mahatma Gandhi against British colonial rule in India.
Instruction

133	On which date did the sepoys stationed at Danapur from three regiments initiate their rebellion against the company?
A	April 26, 1857
B	April 25, 1857
C	June 27, 1857
D	July 25, 1857
E
Answer	D, Explanation: The sepoys stationed at Danapur from three regiments initiated their rebellion against the company on July 25, 1857, marking one of the early episodes of dissent during the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
Instruction

134	Under whose leadership in Bihar did all parties boycott the Simon Commission?
A	Rajendra Prasad
B	Anugraha Narayan Sinha
C	Ramvriksha Benipuri
D	C. R. Das
E
Answer	B, Explanation: All parties in Bihar boycotted the Simon Commission under the leadership of Anugraha Narayan Sinha, marking a significant protest against the commission's composition and purpose.
Instruction

135	During which year did Bihar receive a visit from a British Prince?
A	1920
B	1921
C	1922
D	1923
E
Answer	B, Explanation: Bihar received a visit from a British Prince in the year 1921, which was a notable event during that period.
Instruction

136	Which of the following parts were incorporated into the Constitutional Amendment Act?
A	Part IV
B	Part IX
C	Part XI
D	Part XIV
E
Answer	B, Explanation: Part IX, which pertains to the Panchayats, was added to the Constitutional Amendment Act, marking a significant inclusion in the constitutional framework.
Instruction

137	In which year was the Bihar Panchayati Raj Act enacted?
A	2001
B	2003
C	2004
D	2006
E
Answer	D, Explanation: The Bihar Panchayati Raj Act was enacted in the year 1973, aiming to decentralize governance and empower local self-government institutions in Bihar.
Instruction

138	Entity appoints a finance commission to review the functioning of Panchayats?
A	Every 3 year
B	Every 5 year
C	Every 6 year
D	Every 2 year
E
Answer	B, Explanation: State typically appoints a finance commission to review the functioning of Panchayats every five years, as mandated by the Constitution.
Instruction

139	Where is the Kundeshwari Devi Temple, located at Kundghat, situated?
A	Patna
B	Gaya
C	Jamui
D	Munger
E
Answer	C, Explanation: The Kundeshwari Devi Temple, situated at Kundghat, is located in Jamui, Bihar.various species of animals, including tigers, leopards, sloth bears, sambar deer, and numerous bird species.
Instruction

140	Who authored the collection of Hindi poems titled 'Umang'?
A	Harivansh Rai Bachchan
B	Gopal Singh Nepali
C	Mahadevi Verma
D	Ramdhari Singh 'Dinkar'
E
Answer	B, Explanation: 'Umang' is authored by Gopal Singh Nepali, who is known for his contributions to Hindi poetry.
Instruction

141	If 3�−4=113x−4=11, what is the value of �x?
A	5
B	7
C	8
D	15
E
Answer	B, Explanation: Given equation: 3�−4=113x−4=11 Adding 4 to both sides: 3�=153x=15 Dividing both sides by 3: �=5x=5 So, the value of �x is 7.
Instruction

142	If 4�+7=194y+7=19, what is the value of �y?
A	3
B	4
C	5
D	6
E
Answer	A, Explanation: Given equation: 4�+7=194y+7=19 Subtracting 7 from both sides: 4�=124y=12 Dividing both sides by 4: �=3y=3 So, the value of �y is 3.
Instruction

143	If "APPLE" is coded as "1, 16, 16, 12, 5", then how is "ORANGE" coded?
A	15, 18, 1, 14, 7, 5
B	15, 18, 1, 14, 6, 5
C	15, 17, 1, 14, 7, 5
D	15, 18, 1, 14, 7, 6
E
Answer	A, Explanation: The coding pattern seems to represent each letter by its position in the English alphabet. So, "A" is coded as 1, "B" as 2, and so on. Applying this pattern: "A" is the 1st letter, so it's coded as 1. "P" is the 16th letter, so it's coded as 16. "P" is again the 16th letter, so it's coded as 16. "L" is the 12th letter, so it's coded as 12. "E" is the 5th letter, so it's coded as 5. Therefore, applying the same pattern to "ORANGE"
Instruction

144	In a certain code language, "RABBIT" is written as "21521920". How is "TIGER" written in that code language?
A	202197
B	209716
C	209721
D	207219
E
Answer	C, Explanation: The given code seems to represent each letter by its position in the English alphabet. So, "A" is coded as 1, "B" as 2, and so on. Applying this pattern: "R" is the 18th letter, so it's coded as 18. "A" is the 1st letter, so it's coded as 1. "B" is the 2nd letter, so it's coded as 2. "B" is again the 2nd letter, so it's coded as 2. "I" is the 9th letter, so it's coded as 9. "T" is the 20th letter, so it's coded as 20. Therefore, the code for "TIGER" is "209721". Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Instruction

145	If Amit is the son of Deepak's father's sister, what is Amit's relationship to Deepak?
A	Brother
B	Cousin
C	Nephew
D	Uncle
E
Answer	B, Explanation: Deepak's father's sister is Deepak's aunt. So, Amit's relationship to Deepak would be Cousin, as Amit is the son of Deepak's aunt. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Instruction

146	If Priya's father's only brother is Rajesh, and Rajesh has a daughter named Sunita, what is Sunita's relationship to Priya?
A	Sister
B	Cousin
C	Aunt
D	Niece
E
Answer	B, Explanation: Since Rajesh is Priya's father's only brother, he is Priya's paternal uncle. Sunita, being Rajesh's daughter, is Priya's cousin. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Instruction

147	Find the missing number in the series: 3, 6, 12, ?, 48, 96
A	18
B	24
C	30
D	36
E
Answer	B, Explanation: The given series follows the pattern of doubling each number. Starting with 3, each subsequent number is obtained by doubling the previous number. So, the missing number in the series is 12 * 2 = 24. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Instruction

148	Find the missing number in the series: 5, 10, 20, ?, 80, 160
A	30
B	35
C	40
D	45
E
Answer	C, Explanation: The given series follows the pattern of multiplying each number by 2 and then adding 0. Starting with 5, each subsequent number is obtained by multiplying the previous number by 2 and adding 0. So, the missing number in the series is 20 * 2 = 40. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Instruction

149	Riya is 5 years older than Arjun. Four years ago, the ratio of Riya's age to Arjun's age was 3:2. What is Riya's current age?
A	11 years
B	12 years
C	19 years
D	14 years
E
Answer	C
Instruction

150	In an examination, Ananya scored 320 marks out of 400. What is her percentage score in the examination?
A	80%
B	75%
C	85%
D	90%
E
Answer	A, Explanation: To find the percentage score, we use the formula: Percentage=(Marks obtainedTotal marks)×100Percentage=(Total marksMarks obtained)×100 Given: Marks obtained by Ananya = 320 Total marks in the examination = 400 Using the formula: Percentage=(320400)×100Percentage=(400320)×100 Percentage=(45)×100Percentage=(54)×100 Percentage=80Percentage=80 So, Ananya's percentage score in the examination is 80%. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Instruction