1

What is the principle behind the operation of a transformer?

A

Law of Conservation of Energy

B

Ohm's Law

C

Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction

D

Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Transformers operate based on Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction. According to this law, when the magnetic flux linking a circuit changes, an electromotive force (EMF) is induced in the circuit. In a transformer, alternating current in the primary coil creates a changing magnetic field, which induces a voltage in the secondary coil through electromagnetic induction. This process allows for the transfer of electrical energy from one circuit to another, typically with a change in voltage levels. Choices A, B, and D are unrelated to the principle behind transformer operation.

Instruction

2

What is the primary energy source primarily used to generate electricity in a modern power plant?

A

Hydroelectric energy

B

Wind energy

C

Fossil fuel energy

D

Nuclear energy

E

Answer

C, Explanation: In a modern power plant, fossil fuel energy is primarily used to generate electricity. Fossil fuel energy involves generating energy from the combustion of fossil fuels such as coal, which produces steam that drives turbines, ultimately generating electricity. Options A, B, and D negate the primary energy sources generated.

Instruction

3

Which of the following is a fundamental force responsible for holding the nucleus of an atom together?

A

Gravitational force

B

Electromagnetic force

C

Strong nuclear force

D

Weak nuclear force

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The strong nuclear force is the fundamental force responsible for holding the nucleus of an atom together. This force acts between nucleons (protons and neutrons) and overcomes the electrostatic repulsion between positively charged protons in the nucleus. It is a short-range force but is extremely powerful at close distances within the nucleus.

Instruction

4

Which of the following devices is used to measure electric current in a circuit?

A

Voltmeter

B

Ammeter

C

Ohmmeter

D

Galvanometer

E

Answer

B, Explanation: An ammeter is used to measure electric current in a circuit. It is connected in series with the circuit, and it measures the flow of electric charge (current) passing through it. Voltmeter (Option A) is used to measure voltage, Ohmmeter (Option C) measures resistance, and Galvanometer (Option D) is a sensitive instrument used to detect and measure small electric currents. However, to measure electric current accurately, an ammeter is employed.

Instruction

5

What is the SI unit of electric charge?

A

Volt

B

Ampere

C

Coulomb

D

Ohm

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The SI unit of electric charge is the Coulomb (C). It is named after the French physicist Charles-Augustin de Coulomb, who made significant contributions to the field of electromagnetism.

Instruction

6

Which of the following is NOT a type of mechanical wave?

A

Sound wave

B

Light wave

C

Water wave

D

Seismic wave

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Light waves are electromagnetic waves, not mechanical waves. Mechanical waves require a medium to propagate, while electromagnetic waves can travel through a vacuum. Sound waves (Option A), water waves (Option C), and seismic waves (Option D) are examples of mechanical waves because they propagate through a material medium by the transfer of energy from particle to particle.

Instruction

7

What is the SI unit of frequency?

A

Hetz

B

Newton

C

Joule

D

Pascal

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The SI unit of frequency is the Hertz (Hz). It is defined as one cycle per second. One Hertz equals one cycle per second. Options B, C, and D represent the SI units of force, energy, and pressure, respectively.

Instruction

8

What is the critical mass of a fissile material?

A

The minimum mass required for a nuclear reaction to become self-sustaining

B

The maximum mass at which a nuclear reactor can operate efficiently

C

The amount of mass lost during a nuclear fission reaction

D

The mass of a nucleus at which it becomes unstable and undergoes radioactive decay

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The critical mass of a fissile material refers to the minimum amount of mass needed for a nuclear chain reaction to become self-sustaining. Below this critical mass, the reaction will not produce enough neutrons to continue, while above it, the reaction will generate enough neutrons to sustain itself.

Instruction

9

What is the process by which a solid changes directly into a gas without passing through the liquid state called?

A

Condensation

B

Sublimation

C

Evaporation

D

Deposition

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The process by which a solid changes directly into a gas without passing through the liquid state is called sublimation. During sublimation, solid particles gain enough energy to break free from their fixed positions and enter the gas phase.

Instruction

10

What is the fundamental principle underlying the operation of a scanning tunneling microscope (STM)?

A

Quantum entanglement

B

Pauli exclusion principle

C

Tunneling effect

D

Photoelectric effect

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The fundamental principle underlying the operation of a scanning tunneling microscope (STM) is the tunneling effect. In STM, a sharp metal tip is brought very close to the surface of a sample, and a small bias voltage is applied between the tip and the sample. Due to the quantum mechanical tunneling effect, electrons can pass through the vacuum gap between the tip and the sample, leading to a measurable tunneling current. This current is highly sensitive to the distance between the tip and the sample surface, allowing for the visualization of atomic-scale features.

Instruction

11

Which of the following is an example of a heterogeneous mixture?

A

Saltwater

B

Air

C

Blood

D

Granite

E

Answer

D, Explanation: Granite is an example of a heterogeneous mixture because it consists of visibly different substances, such as various minerals, that are not uniformly distributed throughout the mixture. In contrast, options A (Saltwater), B (Air), and C (Blood) are examples of homogeneous mixtures where the components are uniformly distributed and indistinguishable at the macroscopic level.

Instruction

12

Which of the following is a noble gas?

A

Oxygen

B

Helium

C

Nitrogen

D

Hydrogen

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Helium is a noble gas. Noble gases are a group of elements found in Group 18 of the periodic table and include helium, neon, argon, krypton, xenon, and radon. These gases are characterized by their very low reactivity due to their stable electron configurations. Options A (Oxygen), C (Nitrogen), and D (Hydrogen) are not noble gases.

Instruction

13

Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of catalysts in chemical reactions?

A

Catalysts increase the activation energy required for a reaction to occur.

B

Catalysts decrease the rate of a chemical reaction.

C

Catalysts are consumed in the reaction they catalyze.

D

Catalysts alter the equilibrium constant of a reaction.

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Catalysts are substances that increase the rate of a chemical reaction by providing an alternative reaction pathway with lower activation energy. Importantly, catalysts themselves remain unchanged at the end of the reaction and are not consumed. Option A is incorrect because catalysts lower the activation energy required for a reaction.

Instruction

14

Which of the following is an example of an exothermic reaction?

A

Burning of candle

B

Photosynthesis

C

Dissolving sugar in water

D

Melting of ice

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The burning of candle is an example of an exothermic reaction. In exothermic reactions, heat is released to the surroundings, resulting in an increase in temperature. Option B (Photosynthesis) is an endothermic reaction where energy is absorbed from the surroundings. Option C (Dissolving sugar in water) is also an endothermic process as it requires energy input. Option D (Melting of ice) is a phase change and does not involve a chemical reaction.

Instruction

15

Which of the following is a Lewis acid?

A

HCL

B

NaOH

C

H2O

D

AlCl3

E

Answer

D, Explanation: AlCl3 (aluminum chloride) is a Lewis acid. A Lewis acid is a substance that can accept an electron pair. In the case of AlCl3, it can accept a pair of electrons from a Lewis base to form a coordinate covalent bond. Options A (HCl), B (NaOH), and C (H2O) are not Lewis acids; they are either Bronsted-Lowry acids or bases.

Instruction

16

Which of the following substances undergoes sublimation at room temperature and pressure?

A

Sodium chloride (NaCl)

B

Carbon dioxide (CO2)

C

Water (H2O)

D

Ethanol (C2H5OH)

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Carbon dioxide (CO2) undergoes sublimation at room temperature and pressure. Sublimation is the process by which a substance transitions directly from a solid phase to a gas phase without passing through the intermediate liquid phase.

Instruction

17

Which of the following is a characteristic property of acids?

A

Turn blue litmus paper red

B

Turn red litmus paper blue

C

Taste bitter

D

Have a pH above 7

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Turning blue litmus paper red is a characteristic property of acids. Acids are substances that release hydrogen ions (H+) when dissolved in water, leading to an increase in the concentration of H+ ions in the solution. This acidic solution turns blue litmus paper red.

Instruction

18

Which of the following is a common example of a base found in household products?

A

Vinegar

B

Lemon Juice

C

Baking soda

D

Milk

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Baking soda (sodium bicarbonate) is a common example of a base found in household products. It is often used in cooking, cleaning, and as a leavening agent in baking. Options A (Vinegar), B (Lemon juice), and D (Milk) are acidic substances commonly found in households.

Instruction

19

Which of the following elements is commonly used in the manufacture of batteries?

A

Iron

B

Zinc

C

Copper

D

Aluminum

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Zinc is commonly used in the manufacture of batteries. Zinc-carbon batteries and alkaline batteries are examples of batteries that utilize zinc in their construction. Options A (Iron), C (Copper), and D (Aluminum) are not commonly used as primary elements in battery manufacturing processes.

Instruction

20

What is the primary greenhouse gas responsible for the enhanced greenhouse effect, leading to global warming?

A

Carbon monoxide (CO)

B

Methane (CH4)

C

Water vapor (H2O)

D

Nitrous oxide (N2O)

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Methane (CH4) is the primary greenhouse gas responsible for the enhanced greenhouse effect, leading to global warming. While carbon dioxide (CO2) is the most abundant greenhouse gas, methane has a much higher global warming potential per molecule. Methane is emitted from various sources, including agriculture (e.g., livestock digestion and rice cultivation), landfills, and fossil fuel production. Options A (Carbon monoxide), C (Water vapor), and D (Nitrous oxide) are also greenhouse gases, but methane has a greater impact on global warming due to its higher potency and shorter atmospheric lifetime.

Instruction

21

Which of the following is the primary function of red blood cells?

A

Carrying oxygen to body tissues

B

Producing antibodies

C

Transmitting nerve impulses

D

Regulating blood sugar levels

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Red blood cells, or erythrocytes, primarily function in carrying oxygen from the lungs to body tissues and removing carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs for exhalation.

Instruction

22

Which of the following is an example of an involuntary muscle?

A

Biceps

B

Quadriceps

C

Heart

D

Hamstrings

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The heart is an example of an involuntary muscle, as it contracts rhythmically to pump blood throughout the body without sconscious effort, unlike voluntary muscles such as the biceps and quadriceps.

Instruction

23

Which part of the human brain is responsible for controlling balance and coordination?

A

Cerebrum

B

Cerebellum

C

Brainstem

D

Thalamus

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The cerebellum is the part of the brain responsible for controlling balance and coordination, while the cerebrum is involved in higher brain functions such as thinking and voluntary movements.

Instruction

24

Which of the following is a function of the liver?

A

Pumping blood throughout the body

B

Filtering and detoxifying blood

C

Producing insulin

D

Transporting oxygen to body tissues

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The liver plays a crucial role in filtering and detoxifying blood, metabolizing nutrients, and producing bile, but it is not responsible for pumping blood throughout the body or producing insulin.

Instruction

25

Which of the following biological phenomena is associated with "apoptosis"?

A

Cellular division

B

Cellular differentiation

C

Programmed cell death

D

Cellular respiration

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Apoptosis, also known as programmed cell death, is a highly regulated process in which cells undergo controlled self-destruction. This phenomenon plays a crucial role in various physiological processes, including embryonic development, tissue homeostasis, and immune response regulation. Options A (Cellular division), B (Cellular differentiation), and D (Cellular respiration) are not directly associated with apoptosis.

Instruction

26

In humans, what is the primary function of the lymphatic system?

A

Digesting food and absorbing nutrients

B

Regulating body temperature

C

Filtering and returning interstitial fluid to the bloodstream

D

Producing hormones to regulate metabolism

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The primary function of the lymphatic system in humans is to filter and return interstitial fluid, along with proteins and white blood cells, back to the bloodstream. This system also plays a crucial role in immune defense by transporting lymphocytes and antibodies throughout the body.

Instruction

27

Which of the following is an example of a symbiotic relationship where both organisms benefit?

A

Parasitism

B

Predation

C

Mutualism

D

Commensalism

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Mutualism is a symbiotic relationship where both organisms involved benefit from the interaction. This can include various examples such as pollination by bees, where the plant receives pollination services while the bee obtains nectar and pollen.

Instruction

28

Which of the following is a specialized cell responsible for producing antibodies in the immune system?

A

T lymphocyte

B

B lymphocyte

C

Macrophage

D

Natural killer cell

E

Answer

B, Explanation: B lymphocytes, also known as B cells, are specialized cells responsible for producing antibodies in the immune system. These antibodies play a crucial role in recognizing and neutralizing pathogens, such as bacteria and viruses.

Instruction

29

Which organelle is responsible for the synthesis of proteins in a eukaryotic cell?

A

Mitochondria

B

Golgi apparatus

C

Endoplasmic reticulum

D

Lysosomes

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is responsible for the synthesis of proteins in a eukaryotic cell. It consists of rough ER, which has ribosomes attached to its surface, where protein synthesis occurs, and smooth ER, which is involved in lipid synthesis and detoxification.

Instruction

30

Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for the storage, modification, and packaging of proteins for secretion?

A

Nucleus

B

Mitochondria

C

Golgi Apparatus

D

Ribosomes

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The Golgi apparatus is responsible for the storage, modification, and packaging of proteins for secretion in eukaryotic cells. It receives proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), modifies them, and packages them into vesicles for transportation to their final destinations.

Instruction

31

Which of the following mountain ranges runs parallel to the western coast of India?

A

Vindhya Range

B

Aravalli Range

C

Satpura Range

D

Western Ghats

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The Western Ghats run parallel to the western coast of India, stretching from Gujarat in the north to Tamil Nadu in the south. They are known for their rich biodiversity and play a crucial role in influencing the region's climate and ecology.

Instruction

32

Which of the following is the highest peak in the Western Ghats of India?

A

Anamudi

B

Mullayanagiri

C

Doddabetta

D

Kalsubai

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Anamudi, located in the Indian state of Kerala, is the highest peak in the Western Ghats and South India, with an elevation of approximately 2,695 meters (8,842 feet). It is known for its scenic beauty and biodiversity, attracting trekkers and nature enthusiasts from around the world.

Instruction

33

Which of the following Indian states does not share a border with Myanmar?

A

Manipur

B

Nagaland

C

Tripura

D

Arunachal Pradesh

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Tripura does not share a border with Myanmar. Therefore, Tripura is the option that does not share a border with Myanmar.

Instruction

34

Which of the following Indian states has the highest percentage of forest cover relative to its total geographical area?

A

Mizoram

B

Arunachal Pradesh

C

Uttarakhand

D

Madhya Pradesh

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Mizoram has the highest percentage of forest cover relative to its total geographical area among the given options. It is known for its dense forests and biodiversity, with approximately 85% of its land covered by forests.

Instruction

35

Which of the following river basins in India is not classified as a part of the Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna basin?

A

Godavari

B

Krishna

C

Mahanadi

D

Kaveri

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The Kaveri river basin is not classified as a part of the Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna basin. While the Godavari, Krishna, and Mahanadi rivers are all tributaries of the Bay of Bengal and contribute to the extensive Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna basin, the Kaveri river flows independently, draining into the Bay of Bengal in southern India.

Instruction

36

Which of the following mountain ranges forms the natural boundary between Europe and Asia?

A

Rocky Mountains

B

Andes Mountains

C

Ural Mountains

D

Himalayas

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The Ural Mountains form the natural boundary between Europe and Asia. Stretching approximately 2,500 kilometers from the Arctic Ocean to the Ural River, they separate the European and Asian continents.

Instruction

37

Which of the following mountain ranges is known as the "Roof of the World"?

A

Andes Mountains

B

Himalayas

C

Alps

D

Rocky Mountains

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The Himalayas, located in Asia, are often referred to as the "Roof of the World" due to their towering peaks, including Mount Everest, the highest point on Earth. This mountain range spans several countries, including India, Nepal, Bhutan, China, and Pakistan.

Instruction

38

Which of the following is the largest island in Japan?

A

Honshu

B

Hokkaido

C

Shikoku

D

Kyushu

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Honshu is the largest island in Japan, covering approximately 227,960 square kilometers. It is the main island of Japan and is home to the country's capital, Tokyo, as well as other major cities such as Osaka and Kyoto.

Instruction

39

Which of the following African countries does not have a coastline along the Atlantic Ocean

A

Angola

B

Namibia

C

Gabon

D

Zambia

E

Answer

D, Explanation: Zambia is the only landlocked country among the options provided, as it does not have a coastline along the Atlantic Ocean. Angola, Namibia, and Gabon all have coastlines along the Atlantic Ocean.

Instruction

40

Which of the following minerals is commonly associated with diamond deposits?

A

Quartz

B

Calcite

C

Kimberlite

D

Gypsum

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Kimberlite is a type of volcanic rock that often contains diamonds. It is commonly associated with diamond deposits and is formed deep within the Earth's mantle.

Instruction

41

Who has the power to create new All India Service in India?

A

President

B

Parliament

C

Prime Minister

D

Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Parliament has the authority to create new All India Services as per Article 312 of the Indian Constitution. All India Services like the IAS (Indian Administrative Service) and IPS (Indian Police Service) are created by Parliament.

Instruction

42

Which of the following is an essential feature of the Federal System of government in India?

A

Dual Citizenship

B

Supremacy of the Judiciary

C

Division of power between Center and States

D

Single Unified Judiciary

E

Answer

C, Explanation: A federal system of government involves the division of powers between the central government and regional governments (states in the case of India). India follows a federal system where powers are divided between the Union (Centre) and the States.

Instruction

43

Which of the following is NOT a constitutional body in India?

A

National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)

B

Election Commission of India (ECI)

C

Finance Commission

D

Planning Commission

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) through an executive resolution in 2014. The other options mentioned are constitutional bodies established under specific articles of the Constitution.

Instruction

44

In India, the concept of judicial review is borrowed from which Country’s Constitution?

A

United States of America

B

United Kingdom

C

Canada

D

Australia

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The concept of judicial review, which allows the judiciary to review the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions, is borrowed from the United States Constitution. It was established by the landmark case of Marbury v. Madison in the US.

Instruction

45

In which year was the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act passed by the Indian Parliament?

A

June 2014

B

July 2014

C

August 2014

D

September 2014

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in August, 2014.

Instruction

46

The doctrines of “basic structure” of the Constitution was evolved by the Indian Supreme Court in which Landmark case?

A

Kesavan Anda Bharati v. State of Kerala

B

Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

C

Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain

D

Keshav Singh v. State of Rajasthan

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The doctrine of the "basic structure" of the Constitution had evolved by the Indian Supreme Court in the landmark case of Kesavan Anda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973). This doctrine implies that certain features of the Constitution are beyond the amending power of the Parliament.

Instruction

47

Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can the President be impeached?

A

Article 61

B

Article 72

C

Article 76

D

Article 78

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Article 61 of the Indian Constitution deals with the impeachment of the President. The process of impeachment involves charges being brought against the President for violation of the Constitution. It requires a resolution passed by a special majority in both houses of Parliament, followed by an inquiry and investigation.

Instruction

48

Who is responsible for the preparation of the electoral rolls for Panchayat election in Indian?

A

District Collector

B

District Election Officer

C

Tehsildar

D

Block development Officer

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The District Election Officer is responsible for the preparation of the electoral rolls for Panchayat elections in India.

Instruction

49

What is the minimum number of members required for a Gram Sabha meeting to be valid in India?

A

10% of the registered voters

B

20% of the registered voter

C

30% of the registered voters

D

50% of the registered voters

E

Answer

B, Explanation: In India, a Gram Sabha meeting is considered valid if at least 20% of the registered voters are present.

Instruction

50

What is the tenure of a Gram Panchayat in India as per the 73rd Amendment of the Indian Constitution?

A

3 years

B

4 years

C

5 years

D

6 years

E

Answer

C, Explanation: As per the 73rd Amendment of the Indian Constitution, the tenure of a Gram Panchayat is five years.

Instruction

51

Which ancient Indian ruler is known for the establishment of an extensive trade network with distant lands including Arabia and East Africa, as attested by archaeological findings like the "Periplus of the Erythraean Sea"?

A

Chandragupta Maurya

B

Ashoka the Great

C

Harsha Vardhana

D

Kanishka

E

Answer

D, Explanation: Kanishka, the ruler of the Kushan Empire, is known for his extensive trade networks that reached distant lands such as Arabia and East Africa. The "Periplus of the Erythraean Sea," an ancient Greek manuscript, provides evidence of this trade.

Instruction

52

Which ancient Indian ruler, known for his military conquests and establishment of the Maurya Empire, authored the treatise "Arthashastra," which provided guidance on statecraft, economics, and governance?

A

Chandragupta Maurya

B

Ashoka the Great

C

Chandragupta II

D

Bindusara

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Chandragupta Maurya, the founder of the Maurya Empire, was known for his military conquests and strategic governance. He was the author of the "Arthashastra," an ancient Indian treatise on statecraft, economics, and governance, which provides valuable insights into ancient Indian political thought and administration.

Instruction

53

Which ancient Indian kingdom, known for its maritime trade and cultural exchange with Southeast Asia and beyond?

A

Magadha

B

Maurya

C

Pallava

D

Chola

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The Chola dynasty, known for its powerful naval force and extensive maritime trade networks, ruled an ancient Indian kingdom located primarily in the southern part of the Indian subcontinent. The Cholas had significant cultural and commercial exchanges with regions such as Southeast Asia, Sri Lanka, and the Middle East, making them prominent players in the Indian Ocean trade network.

Instruction

54

Which ancient Indian dynasty, renowned for its architectural marvels such as the Shore Temple in Mahabalipuram and the Kailasanathar Temple in Kanchipuram, played a significant role in the development of Dravidian architecture?

A

Satavahana

B

Kushan

C

Gupta

D

Pallava

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The Pallava dynasty, known for its remarkable architectural achievements, particularly in the field of Dravidian architecture, left a lasting legacy through structures like the Shore Temple and the Kailasanathar Temple.

Instruction

55

Which ancient Indian ruler, known for his military prowess and diplomatic acumen, is credited with the construction of the rock-cut caves at Ajanta and Ellora?

A

Ashoka the Great

B

Harsha Vardhana

C

Chandragupta Maurya

D

Krishna Deva Raya

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Harsha Vardhana, the ruler of the Vardhana dynasty, is credited with the construction of the rock-cut caves at Ajanta and Ellora. These caves are renowned for their exquisite sculptures and paintings, representing a significant achievement in Indian art and architecture during Harsha's reign.

Instruction

56

During which period did the Mauryan Empire reach its greatest extent under the reign of Emperor Ashoka, who embraced Buddhism and propagated its teachings?

A

4th Century BCE

B

3rd Century BCE

C

2nd Century BCE

D

1st Century BCE

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The Mauryan Empire reached its greatest extent during the 3rd century BCE under the reign of Emperor Ashoka. Ashoka, after embracing Buddhism following the Kalinga War, became a proponent of non-violence and propagated Buddhist teachings through his inscriptions and edicts across the empire. This period witnessed the spread of Buddhism to various parts of India and beyond.

Instruction

57

Which medieval Indian saint, known for his compositions of devotional poetry called "abhyangas," advocated for the worship of the formless divine and emphasized the importance of social equality and rejection of caste distinctions during the Bhakti movement?

A

Kabir Das

B

Guru Nanak Dev

C

Sant Tukaram

D

Chaitanya Mahaprabhu

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Sant Tukaram, a prominent figure of the Bhakti movement in Maharashtra, composed devotional poetry known as "abhangas" in the Marathi language. He preached the worship of the formless divine (Nirguna Bhakti) and promoted the ideals of social equality, compassion, and service to humanity.

Instruction

58

Which medieval Indian saint, known for his devotional songs called "bhajans" and teachings of divine love and devotion (bhakti), emphasized the universality of spiritual truth and unity of all religions during the Bhakti movement?

A

Kabir Das

B

Guru Nanak Dev

C

Sant Ravidas

D

Chaitanya Mahaprabhu

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Kabir Das, a prominent figure of the Bhakti movement, composed devotional songs known as "bhajans" that reflected his teachings of divine love and devotion.

Instruction

59

During the medieval period in India, which mystical tradition emphasized the concept of divine love and the direct personal experience of God, often expressed through poetry and music, and played a significant role in promoting harmony among people of different religious backgrounds?

A

Jainism

B

Sufism

C

Shaivism

D

Vaishnavism

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Sufism, a mystical tradition within Islam, emphasized the inner, personal experience of God through practices such as meditation, chanting, and ecstatic rituals.

Instruction

60

Which ancient Jain text, attributed to the sage Kundakunda, expounds upon the philosophy of Jainism, particularly focusing on the concepts of reality, the soul, karma, and liberation (moksha)?

A

Tattvartha Sutra

B

Kalpasutra

C

Samay Sāra

D

Niyamasara

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The Tattvartha Sutra, also known as the Tattvarthadhigama Sutra, is a key Jain scripture attributed to the sage Kundakunda. It provides a systematic exposition of Jain philosophy, elucidating concepts such as the nature of reality (tattva), the soul (jiva), karma, and the path to liberation (moksha). This text is considered fundamental in understanding Jain metaphysics and spirituality.

Instruction

61

The Mughal emperor who imposed Jizya tax on non-Muslims was:

A

Akbar

B

Jahangir

C

Aurangzeb

D

Shah Jahan

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Aurangzeb, during his reign, reimposed the Jizya tax on non-Muslims, which had been abolished by Akbar. This policy was one of the measures Aurangzeb took to assert Islamic orthodoxy during his rule.

Instruction

62

Akbar's policy of Sulh-i-kul refers to:

A

Religious tolerance

B

Land revenue system

C

Military strategy

D

Trade reforms

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Sulh-i-kul, meaning "peace with all," was a policy of religious tolerance adopted by Akbar, the Mughal emperor. Under this policy, Akbar promoted harmony among different religious communities and sought to create a syncretic culture in his empire.

Instruction

63

The battle of Talikota in 1565 resulted in the decline of which empire in South India?

A

Chola Empire

B

Vijayanagara Empire

C

Hoysala Empire

D

Kakatiya Empire

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The battle of Talikota was fought between the Vijayanagara Empire and the Deccan Sultanates. The defeat of Vijayanagara in this battle led to the decline of the empire and paved the way for the fragmentation of South India.

Instruction

64

The Bhakti saint who composed the "Ardhanarishvara Stotram" and advocated the worship of Ardhanarishvara, the androgynous form of Shiva and Parvati, was:

A

Kabir

B

Guru Nanak

C

Mirabai

D

Basava

E

Answer

D, Explanation: Basava, a 12th-century Bhakti saint from Karnataka, composed the "Ardhanarishvara Stotram" and advocated the worship of Ardhanarishvara, symbolizing the unity of male and female energies in the divine. He was a prominent figure in the Lingayat sect and promoted social equality and devotional worship.

Instruction

65

Which Mughal emperor initiated the Din-i-Ilahi, a syncretic religion that attempted to blend elements of Islam and Hinduism?

A

Humayun

B

Akbar

C

Jahangir

D

Shah Jahan

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Akbar, during his reign (1556–1605), initiated the Din-i-Ilahi or the "Divine Faith," which aimed to create a syncretic religion blending elements of Islam, Hinduism, Christianity, and Zoroastrianism. However, this movement did not gain widespread acceptance and eventually faded away.

Instruction

66

Who among the following rulers of the Vijayanagara Empire is known for his naval expeditions to Southeast Asia and patronage of literature and arts?

A

Krishnadevaraya

B

Devaraya II

C

Achyuta Deva Raya

D

Bukka Raya I

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Krishnadevaraya, one of the greatest rulers of the Vijayanagara Empire (1509–1529), was known for his naval expeditions to Southeast Asia, particularly to Malacca. He was also a patron of literature, arts, and architecture, with his reign considered a golden age for the Vijayanagara Empire.

Instruction

67

Who was the Sultan of Delhi Sultanate known for his market reforms, including the introduction of the "market control" system to stabilize prices?

A

Alauddin Khilji

B

Muhammad bin Tughlaq

C

Firuz Shah Tughlaq

D

Sikandar Lodi

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Alauddin Khilji, who ruled from 1296 to 1316, implemented various economic reforms to stabilize prices and control the economy. His market reforms included the introduction of the "market control" system, which involved fixing prices of essential commodities and regulating trade to prevent inflation and hoarding. Alauddin Khilji's policies aimed to ensure the welfare of his subjects and maintain stability within the empire.

Instruction

68

The Battle of Haldighati fought in 1576 was between:

A

Rana Pratap of Mewar and Akbar's forces

B

Shivaji and the Mughals

C

Babur and the Rajputs

D

Krishnadevaraya and the Deccan Sultanates

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The Battle of Haldighati was fought between the forces of Rana Pratap, the ruler of Mewar, and the Mughal forces led by Akbar's general, Man Singh I. It was a significant conflict in the history of Rajputana resistance against Mughal expansion.

Instruction

69

Which medieval Indian ruler is credited with the construction of the famous "Adhai Din Ka Jhonpra" mosque in Ajmer, Rajasthan?

A

Qutb-ud-din Aibak

B

Iltutmish

C

Alauddin Khilji

D

Muhammad Ghori

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Qutb-ud-din Aibak, the founder of the Delhi Sultanate, is credited with the construction of the "Adhai Din Ka Jhonpra" mosque in Ajmer. It was originally built as a Sanskrit college, but later converted into a mosque by Aibak.

Instruction

70

Which medieval Indian dynasty ruled over present-day Maharashtra, with their capital at Devagiri (modern-day Daulatabad), and was known for their patronage of arts, literature, and temple architecture?

A

Chola dynasty

B

Yadava dynasty

C

Pallava dynasty

D

Hoysala dynasty

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The Yadava dynasty ruled over present-day Maharashtra from the 12th to the 14th centuries, with their capital at Devagiri (modern-day Daulatabad). They were known for their patronage of arts, literature, and temple architecture, contributing significantly to the cultural heritage of the region.

Instruction

71

During the Indian National Movement, which event led to the emergence of extremist leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Bipin Chandra Pal?

A

Rowlatt Act

B

Partition of Bengal

C

Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

D

Surat Split

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The Partition of Bengal in 1905 was a significant event that led to the emergence of extremist leaders within the Indian National Movement. This divisive act by the British colonial government aimed to weaken the growing nationalist sentiment in Bengal by dividing the province along religious lines. The protest against the partition saw the rise of leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak in Maharashtra and Bipin Chandra Pal in Bengal, who advocated more radical methods of protest and self-rule.

Instruction

72

Which uprising is known as the "First or Initial Phase of the Indian Freedom Struggle"?

A

Revolt of 1857

B

Surat Split

C

Partition of Bengal

D

Non-Cooperation Movement

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The Revolt of 1857, also known as the "Sepoy Mutiny," is considered the First or Initial Phase of the Indian Freedom Struggle. It was a significant event in Indian history where Indian soldiers in the British East India Company's army rebelled against British rule. This event laid the foundation for the Indian National Movement and is often regarded as the beginning of the struggle for independence.

Instruction

73

Which event led to the formal declaration of the goal of "Purna Swaraj" (Complete Independence) by the Indian National Congress?

A

Simon Commission

B

Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

C

Gandhi-Irwin Pact

D

Lahore Session of 1929

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress held in 1929 marked a significant turning point in the Indian freedom struggle. During this session, the Congress passed a resolution demanding "Purna Swaraj" or Complete Independence for India. It was decided that 26th January 1930 would be celebrated as Independence Day.

Instruction

74

Who among the following was not a participant in the Dandi March led by Mahatma Gandhi during the Indian independence movement?

A

Sarojini Naidu

B

Jawaharlal Nehru

C

Vallabhbhai Patel

D

Subhas Chandra Bose

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The Dandi March, also known as the Salt Satyagraha, was a significant event in the Indian independence movement led by Mahatma Gandhi. It commenced on March 12, 1930, and aimed to protest against the British salt monopoly.

Instruction

75

Who founded the Indian National Army (INA) during the Indian independence movement?

A

Bhagat Singh

B

Subhas Chandra Bose

C

Jawaharlal Nehru

D

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The Indian National Army (INA), also known as Azad Hind Fauj, was founded by Subhas Chandra Bose during the Indian independence movement. Bose, popularly known as Netaji, believed in armed resistance against British rule and sought support from Axis powers during World War II to fight against the British. The INA played a crucial role in India's struggle for independence by mobilizing Indian soldiers and civilians against British colonialism.

Instruction

76

Who was the first woman President of the Indian National Congress?

A

Sarojini Naidu

B

Annie Besant

C

Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

D

Kamala Nehru

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Annie Besant was the first woman President of the Indian National Congress. She presided over the 1917 Calcutta session of the Congress. Besant was a prominent British socialist, women's rights activist, and supporter of Indian self-rule.

Instruction

77

Who authored the book "Glimpses of World History," which provides a comprehensive overview of world history from ancient times to the early 20th century?

A

Mahatma Gandhi

B

Jawaharlal Nehru

C

Rabindranath Tagore

D

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

E

Answer

B, Explanation: "Glimpses of World History" was authored by Jawaharlal Nehru. This book offers a broad understanding of world history, spanning from ancient civilizations to the early 20th century. Nehru wrote this book while imprisoned in 1934-1935 and intended it as a series of letters to his daughter, Indira Gandhi, to provide her with an insight into world history.

Instruction

78

Who is known as the "Frontier Gandhi" for his advocacy of non-violence in the face of adversity in the North-West Frontier Province (now in Pakistan)?

A

Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

B

Muhammad Ali Jinnah

C

Liaquat Ali Khan

D

Allama Iqbal

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan is known as the "Frontier Gandhi" for his unwavering commitment to non-violence and his advocacy for the rights of Pashtuns in the North-West Frontier Province (now in Pakistan).

Instruction

79

Who was the founder of the Servants of India Society, an organization dedicated to promoting social service and nationalist ideals?

A

Mahatma Gandhi

B

Gopal Krishna Gokhale

C

Bal Gangadhar Tilak

D

Dadabhai Naoroji

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The founder of the Servants of India Society was Gopal Krishna Gokhale. He established this organization in 1905 with the aim of promoting social service and nationalist ideals among the Indian population.

Instruction

80

Who founded the Indian Home Rule Society in London to advocate for self-rule for India and to garner support for India's independence movement?

A

Annie Besant

B

Bipin Chandra Pal

C

Shyamji Krishna Verma

D

Bal Gangadhar Tilak

E

Answer

C, Explanation: He established the society in 1905 with the aim of advocating for self-rule for India and garnering support for India's independence movement. Thank you for bringing this to my attention, and I apologize for the oversight.

Instruction

81

Which of the following is not a component of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) calculation?

A

Government spending

B

Imports

C

Investment

D

Foreign aid

E

Answer

D, Explanation: Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures the total monetary value of all final goods and services produced within a country's borders during a specific period. It is calculated by summing up consumption, investment, government spending, and net exports (exports minus imports).

Instruction

82

What is the primary purpose of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in regulating the economy?

A

Ensuring high levels of employment

B

Maximizing government revenue

C

Controlling inflation and maintaining price stability

D

Stimulating economic growth through deficit spending

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The primary purpose of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in regulating the economy is to control inflation and maintain price stability. The RBI achieves this objective by implementing monetary policies such as adjusting interest rates, managing money supply, and regulating the banking sector.

Instruction

83

Which of the following is an example of expansionary fiscal policy?

A

Decreasing government spending

B

Reducing income tax rates

C

Selling government securities

D

Increasing the reserve requirement for banks

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Expansionary fiscal policy aims to stimulate economic growth by increasing aggregate demand. One way to achieve this is by reducing income tax rates, which puts more money in the hands of consumers, leading to increased spending and investment.

Instruction

84

Which of the following is a tool of monetary policy used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to control inflation?

A

Increasing government spending

B

Lowering the cash reserve ratio (CRR)

C

Raising income tax rates

D

Selling government securities

E

Answer

B, Explanation: Lowering the cash reserve ratio (CRR) is a tool of monetary policy used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to control inflation. When the RBI lowers the CRR, it increases the liquidity in the banking system, allowing banks to lend more money to consumers and businesses. This increased lending stimulates economic activity, leading to higher levels of consumption and investment, which can help to control inflation.

Instruction

85

Which of the following policies is aimed at reducing the budget deficit?

A

Expansionary fiscal policy

B

Tightening monetary policy

C

Decreasing government expenditure

D

Lowering interest rates

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Reducing government expenditure is a policy aimed at reducing the budget deficit. When the government spends less, it reduces the overall deficit, as expenditure is a major component of government revenue and determines the extent of borrowing required to finance the deficit.

Instruction

86

Which of the following is a tool used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to stimulate economic growth during a period of recession?

A

Increasing the repo rate

B

Selling government securities

C

Lowering the statutory liquidity ratio (SLR)

D

Raising income tax rates

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Lowering the statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) is a tool used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to stimulate economic growth during a period of recession. SLR refers to the portion of deposits that banks are required to maintain in the form of liquid assets like cash, gold, or government securities.

Instruction

87

During an economic slowdown, which monetary policy tool does the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) commonly use to encourage borrowing and spending?

A

Increasing the reverse repo rate

B

Buying government securities

C

Reducing the statutory liquidity ratio (SLR)

D

Lowering the bank rate

E

Answer

C, Explanation: During an economic slowdown, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) commonly uses the tool of reducing the statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) to encourage borrowing and spending. Lowering the SLR frees up funds for banks to lend, thereby stimulating economic activity.

Instruction

88

Which of the following policies is typically employed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to combat inflationary pressures?

A

Increasing the repo rate

B

Decreasing the statutory liquidity ratio (SLR)

C

Lowering income tax rates

D

Selling government bonds in the open market

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Increasing the repo rate is a monetary policy tool commonly used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to combat inflationary pressures. When the repo rate is increased, it becomes more expensive for banks to borrow funds from the RBI, leading to higher interest rates in the economy. This helps to reduce borrowing and spending, thereby cooling down inflation.

Instruction

89

NITI Aayog introduced a flagship initiative aimed at fostering competitive federalism and promoting ease of doing business across states in India. What is the name of this initiative?

A

Atal Innovation Mission (AIM)

B

National Nutrition Mission (NNM)

C

Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Capital (SATH)

D

Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) Index

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The correct answer is D) Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) Index. NITI Aayog introduced this flagship initiative to foster competitive federalism and enhance the ease of doing business across states in India. The EoDB Index ranks states based on their performance in implementing business-friendly reforms, thereby encouraging healthy competition and attracting investments.

Instruction

90

On which date was the National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog established by the Government of India?

A

January 1, 2014

B

January 1, 2015

C

January 1, 2016

D

January 1, 2017

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog was established by the Government of India on January 1, 2015, replacing the erstwhile Planning Commission. NITI Aayog serves as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.

Instruction

91

What was the recent decision of the Supreme Court regarding the Shimla Development Plan 2041?

A

The Supreme Court rejected the plan, terming it unsustainable.

B

The Supreme Court upheld the plan, considering it illegal.

C

The Supreme Court approved the plan, terming it sustainable.

D

The Supreme Court directed the state government to revise the plan within six weeks.

E

Answer

C, Explanation: According to the provided information, the recent decision of the Supreme Court regarding the Shimla Development Plan 2041 was that the court approved the plan, terming it sustainable. This decision set aside the previous orders of the NGT and emphasized that the NGT cannot dictate the state government's formulation of the plan but can scrutinize the plan on its merits.

Instruction

92

What is the objective of the Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhuyday Yojana (PM-AJAY)?

A

To provide financial assistance to rural households.

B

To promote agricultural development in backward regions.

C

To uplift Scheduled Caste (SC) communities through employment generation and skill development.

D

To improve infrastructure in urban areas.

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhuyday Yojana (PM-AJAY) aims to uplift Scheduled Caste (SC) communities by generating employment opportunities through skill development, income-generating schemes, and various initiatives.

Instruction

93

What is the significance of the Kochi-Lakshadweep Islands Submarine Optical Fiber Connection (KLI-SOFC) project?

A

It aims to improve transportation infrastructure in Lakshadweep.

B

It focuses on enhancing agricultural productivity in the region

C

It introduces high-speed internet connectivity to Lakshadweep through submarine optic fiber cables.

D

It aims to promote cultural exchange between Kochi and Lakshadweep.

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The significance of the Kochi-Lakshadweep Islands Submarine Optical Fiber Connection (KLI-SOFC) project lies in its introduction of high-speed internet connectivity to Lakshadweep through submarine optic fiber cables. This project will unlock new possibilities and opportunities by increasing internet speed, benefiting the population and fostering socio-economic development in the region.

Instruction

94

What is the objective of the Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA)?

A

To provide financial support to students for higher education.

B

To improve infrastructure in schools located in Scheduled Castes (SCs) dominant areas.

C

To fill the educational service gap by providing high-quality education and overall development for SC students.

D

To promote vocational training among students from marginalized communities.

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The objective of the Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA) is to fill the educational service gap by providing high-quality education, socio-economic upliftment, and overall development for Scheduled Castes (SC) students. This scheme aims to provide residential education in high-quality schools to SC students from marginalized income groups.

Instruction

95

What is the primary reason for the decline in saffron production in Kashmir?

A

Environmental pollution caused by cement factories

B

Climate change and unexpected rainfall

C

Lack of government intervention in promoting saffron cultivation

D

Market challenges leading to decreased demand for saffron

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The primary reason for the decline in saffron production in Kashmir is environmental pollution caused by cement factories. Cement factories emit large volumes of dust containing harmful gases, which adversely affect the quality and quantity of saffron yield. This pollution leads to decreased chlorophyll, interrupted light absorption, and gas diffusion in saffron plants, ultimately resulting in stunted growth and reduced saffron production.

Instruction

96

What is the primary objective of the Migration and Mobility Agreement between India and Italy?

A

To restrict irregular migration between the two countries.

B

To strengthen cooperation on trade and economic issues.

C

To facilitate mobility for various segments and foster people-to-people ties.

D

To regulate the flow of seasonal workers between India and Italy.

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The primary objective of the Migration and Mobility Agreement between India and Italy is to facilitate mobility for various segments, including students, skilled workers, businesspersons, and young professionals, thereby fostering exchange and collaboration while strengthening people-to-people ties between the two countries.

Instruction

97

What recent events have raised concerns about global trade disruptions?

A

Attacks on ships in the Red Sea trade route and ongoing drought problem at the Panama Canal

B

Political tensions in the South China Sea and trade disputes between the US and China

C

Economic sanctions imposed on Russia and cyberattacks on major shipping

D

Volcanic eruptions in the Pacific Ocean and hurricanes affecting Caribbean trade routes

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Recent attacks on ships in the Red Sea trade route and the ongoing drought problem at the Panama Canal have raised worries about global trade disruptions. These incidents have the potential to affect shipping routes and lead to delays in the transportation of goods, impacting international trade.

Instruction

98

What is the primary concern highlighted by the recent Lancet study on child marriage in India?

A

The increasing incidence of child marriage across all states of India.

B

The effectiveness of policy interventions in curbing child marriage in certain states.

C

The impact of poverty on the prevalence of child marriage in India.

D

The disparity in child marriage rates between urban and rural areas of India.

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The recent Lancet study on child marriage in India primarily highlights concerns regarding the effectiveness of policy interventions in curbing child marriage, particularly in states like West Bengal. Despite the implementation of initiatives like the Kanyashree Prakalpa Scheme, certain states have experienced a surge in the incidence of child marriages, raising questions about the efficacy of these interventions.

Instruction

99

What is the primary objective of the Peregrine Mission One?

A

To establish a permanent human settlement on the Moon.

B

To conduct scientific experiments to study lunar geology and environment.

C

To mine lunar resources for commercial purposes.

D

To demonstrate the capabilities of private space enterprises in lunar exploration.

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The primary objective of the Peregrine Mission One is to demonstrate the capabilities of private space enterprises in lunar exploration. Spearheaded by Astrobotic Technology and United Launch Alliance, this mission signifies a shift towards leveraging the capabilities of the private sector for space exploration.

Instruction

100

What is the primary aim of the Square Kilometre Array Observatory (SKAO)?

A

To construct and maintain a network of advanced radio telescopes for celestial research.

B

To establish a central hub for coordinating global radio astronomy efforts.

C

To exclusively focus on studying gravitational waves using radio telescope technology.

D

To operate a single massive telescope for observing celestial phenomena.

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The main objective of the Square Kilometer Array Observatory (SKAO) is to develop and manage a network of cutting-edge radio telescopes dedicated to celestial research.

Instruction

101

What is the focus of ISRO's Space Missions set for 2024?

A

To explore the atmosphere of Venus and study its climatic conditions.

B

To investigate the polarization of intense X-ray sources in the universe.

C

To launch a dual-frequency synthetic aperture radar satellite for Earth remote sensing.

D

To conduct a test flight involving three crew members as part of India's Human Spaceflight Programme.

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The focus of ISRO's Space Missions set for 2024 includes launching a dual-frequency synthetic aperture radar satellite called NISAR for Earth remote sensing, providing insights into various Earth systems such as ecosystems, ice mass, vegetation biomass, and natural hazards.

Instruction

102

What is the significance of the lithium deal between India and Argentina?

A

It aims to explore the atmosphere of Venus and study its climatic conditions.

B

It seeks to investigate the polarization of intense X-ray sources in the universe.

C

It involves the acquisition and development of lithium blocks for potential extraction and commercialization.

D

It involves entering into a non-disclosure agreement for possible exploration, extraction, processing, and commercialization of lithium.

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The lithium deal between India and Argentina involves a draft exploration and development agreement for the acquisition and development of lithium blocks, highlighting the potential for extraction and commercialization of lithium resources.

Instruction

103

What initiative was launched in 1973 with the primary objective of ensuring the survival and maintenance of the tiger population in their natural habitats?

A

Project Elephant

B

Project Rhino

C

Project Leopard

D

Project Tiger

E

Answer

D, Explanation: Project Tiger is a wildlife conservation initiative launched in 1973 with the primary objective of ensuring the survival and maintenance of the tiger population in their natural habitats.

Instruction

104

What is the primary threat to the Northeast African Cheetah population?

A

Habitat loss and human encroachment

B

Climate change and natural disasters

C

Competition with other predator species

D

Genetic mutations and diseases

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The primary threat to the Northeast African Cheetah population is habitat loss and human encroachment, along with hunting and illegal trade in cubs to Arab countries.

Instruction

105

What is the primary objective of sustainable agriculture?

A

Maximizing short-term yields at the expense of long-term environmental health.

B

Focusing solely on economic profitability without considering environmental impact.

C

Ensuring the long-term viability of agricultural systems while preserving natural resources.

D

Implementing practices that prioritize convenience for farmers over sustainability.

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Sustainable agriculture aims to ensure the long-term viability of agricultural systems while preserving natural resources for future generations. It involves holistic practices that consider environmental stewardship, economic profitability, and social equity.

Instruction

106

Which Indian chess prodigy secured victory in the World Chess Armageddon Asia & Oceania?

A

Gukesh

B

Nihal Sarin

C

Bishan Bedi

D

Erigaisi

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Sixteen-year-old Indian Grandmaster D Gukesh achieved a remarkable victory in the final of the World Chess Armageddon Asia & Oceania, stunning former world rapid champion Nodirbek Abdusattorov of Uzbekistan.

Instruction

107

Which sport is Murali Sreeshankar associated with, as recently seen in the news?

A

Wrestling

B

Cricket

C

Chess

D

Long Jump

E

Answer

D, Explanation: Murali Sreeshankar of India retained his championship title in the men's long jump event at the International Jumping Meeting 2023 held in Kallithea, Greece.

Instruction

108

What is 'BioTRIG', as recently featured in the news?

A

Waste management innovation

B

Environmental conservation approach

C

Robot designed for tank cleaning

D

Pest control method in agriculture

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The BioTRIG is a groundbreaking waste management technology that utilizes pyrolysis to address indoor air pollution, improve soil health, and produce clean energy in rural India. Operating at the community level, it processes locally sourced waste to generate bio-oil, syngas, and biochar fertilizer.

Instruction

109

Which ministry recently signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with ISRO for Urban Frame Survey utilizing Bhuvan?

A

Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment

B

Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

C

Ministry of Commerce and Industry

D

Ministry of Home Affairs

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has forged a strategic partnership with ISRO to conduct the Urban Frame Survey (UFS) utilizing Bhuvan, ISRO's geoportal. UFS, managed by the Field Operations Division (FOD) of NSSO, adopts compact units in urban areas housing 120-150 households.

Instruction

110

Which day is designated as National Safety Day in India?

A

4 March

B

4 Feb

C

4 Jan

D

4 Dec

E

Answer

A, Explanation: National Safety Day is observed annually on March 4 in India, marking the commencement of National Safety Week. With a focus on safety and precautionary measures across various sectors, the theme for 2024 is "Safety for a Sustainable Future."

Instruction

111

Which of the following mountain ranges is not located in Europe?

A

Alps

B

Pyrenees

C

Ural Mountains

D

Rocky Mountains

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The Rocky Mountains (Option D) are located primarily in North America, extending from Canada to the United States, and are not found in Europe.

Instruction

112

Which of the following is not a landlocked country in Africa?

A

Chad

B

Zimbabwe

C

Kenya

D

Niger

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Kenya (Option C) is the only coastal country among the options provided. It has a coastline along the Indian Ocean in East Africa. Chad (Option A), Zimbabwe (Option B), and Niger (Option D) are all landlocked countries in Africa, surrounded entirely by land and lacking direct access to any ocean or sea. Therefore, the correct answer is C) Kenya.

Instruction

113

Which of the following statements about the India State of Forest Report 2021 is NOT true?

A

The report is published annually by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

B

The Forest Survey of India (FSI) conducts survey and assessment of forest resources in India.

C

The ISFR 2021 includes a new chapter on the assessment of forest cover in Tiger Reserves, Corridors, and Lion conservation areas.

D

FSI collaborated with Space Application Centre (SAC), ISRO, Ahmedabad, to estimate Above Ground Biomass (AGB) using Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) data.

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The India State of Forest Report (ISFR) is a biennial publication, not an annual one. It is prepared by the Forest Survey of India (FSI) under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Options B, C, and D correctly describe various aspects of the ISFR 2021 as discussed in the passage.

Instruction

114

What is one of the new initiatives included in the India State of Forest Report 2021?

A

Assessment of forest cover in urban areas

B

Estimation of marine biodiversity

C

Evaluation of agricultural land use within forested regions

D

Assessment of forest cover in Tiger Reserves, Corridors, and Lion conservation areas

E

Answer

D, Explanation: One of the new initiatives introduced in the India State of Forest Report 2021 is the assessment of forest cover in Tiger Reserves, Corridors, and Lion conservation areas. This addition helps in evaluating the impact of conservation measures and management interventions implemented in these critical wildlife habitats.

Instruction

115

What is the objective of the "Bihar Laghu Udyami Yojana" recently approved by the Bihar government?

A

To provide financial assistance to students from Extremely Backward Classes (EBCs) for civil services exams.

B

To provide financial assistance to poor families to create self-employment opportunities.

C

To provide financial assistance to Other Backward Classes (OBCs) for competitive exams.

D

To provide financial assistance to general category families for setting up small industrial units.

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The "Bihar Laghu Udyami Yojana" scheme aims to provide financial assistance to over 9.4 million poor families in Bihar to create self-employment opportunities. The scheme intends to support families with monthly incomes less than ₹6,000 by providing grants up to ₹2 lakh to set up and run small industrial or processing units.

Instruction

116

What is the projected Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Bihar for the financial year 2024-25?

A

Rs 9.76 lakh crore

B

Rs 2,56,333 crore

C

Rs 22,393 crore

D

Rs 1,121 crore

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The projected Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Bihar for the financial year 2024-25 is Rs 9.76 lakh crore, as stated in the budget highlights.

Instruction

117

In 2022-23, which sector is estimated to contribute the highest percentage to Bihar's economy at current prices?

A

Agriculture

B

Manufacturing

C

Services

D

None of the above

E

Answer

C, Explanation: In 2022-23, the services sector is estimated to contribute the highest percentage (58%) to Bihar's economy at current prices, as mentioned in the given details. Options A and B represent agriculture and manufacturing sectors, respectively, which are estimated to contribute 25% and 17% to the economy. Therefore, the correct answer is C) Services.

Instruction

118

Which initiative has mobilized a total of 8.7 crore women from poor and vulnerable communities into 81 lakh Self-Help Groups (SHGs)?

A

Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)

B

National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme

C

Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP) initiative

D

Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihood Mission

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihood Mission has mobilized a total of 8.7 crore women from poor and vulnerable communities into 81 lakh Self-Help Groups (SHGs).

Instruction

119

What is India's target for reducing the emissions intensity of its GDP by 2030 from 2005 levels?

A

30%

B

40%

C

45%

D

50%

E

Answer

C, Explanation: India aims to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 45% by 2030 from 2005 levels, as mentioned in the provided details. This target is part of India's efforts to combat climate change and environmental challenges.

Instruction

120

What was India's merchandise export value in FY22?

A

US$ 254.5 billion

B

US$ 422.0 billion

C

US$ 563 billion

D

US$ 19.2%

E

Answer

B, Explanation: India's merchandise export reached an all-time high of US$ 422.0 billion in FY22, as mentioned in the provided details.

Instruction

121

Which river forms the western boundary of Bihar?

A

Ganges

B

Kosi

C

Son

D

Gandak

E

Answer

D, Explanation: The Gandak River forms the western boundary of Bihar. It originates in Nepal and flows through Bihar before joining the Ganges River.

Instruction

122

The region of Bihar that is known for its fertile alluvial soil and extensive agriculture is:

A

Bhojpur

B

Mithila

C

Champaran

D

Magadh

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Champaran, located in the northern part of Bihar, is renowned for its fertile alluvial soil and extensive agricultural activities. It is famous for being the site where Mahatma Gandhi initiated his Satyagraha movement against the oppressive indigo planters.

Instruction

123

The 'Valmiki Tiger Reserve', located in the western region of Bihar, is situated along the banks of which river?

A

Ganges

B

Son

C

Gandak

D

Kosi

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The 'Valmiki Tiger Reserve' is situated along the banks of the Gandak River. It is located in the western region of Bihar, developed along the banks of the Gandak River.

Instruction

124

In which district of Bihar is the 'Surya Mandir', the world's largest solar temple, located?

A

Aurangabad

B

Araria

C

Banka

D

Bhagalpur

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The 'Surya Mandir', the world's largest solar temple, is situated in the Aurangabad district of Bihar.

Instruction

125

The Kaimur plateau in Bihar is rich in which mineral?

A

Bauxite

B

Limestone

C

Iron Ore

D

Copper

E

Answer

B, Explanation: The Kaimur plateau in Bihar is rich in limestone deposits. Limestone mining is a significant activity in this region, contributing to Bihar's mineral wealth and industrial development.

Instruction

126

Who was the founder of the medieval kingdom of Magadh in Bihar?

A

Bimbisara

B

Chandragupta Maurya

C

Ashoka the Great

D

Ajatashatru

E

Answer

A, Explanation: Bimbisara, the son of King Bhattiya, is regarded as the founder of the medieval kingdom of Magadh in Bihar. He was one of the earliest rulers of the Haryanka dynasty.

Instruction

127

The first Brahmana state in Magadh was established by whom?

A

Bimbisara

B

Chandragupta Maurya

C

Pushyamitra

D

Ajatashatru

E

Answer

C, Explanation: The establishment of the first Brahmana state in Magadh is attributed to Pushyamitra. He was a ruler of the Shunga dynasty and is believed to have established Brahmanical dominance in the Magadhan region during ancient times.

Instruction

128

The power of the Kanva dynasty was brought to an end by whom?

A

Andras

B

Pushyamitra

C

Agnimitra

D

Kushans

E

Answer

A, Explanation: The power of the Kanva dynasty was put to an end by the Andhras. They overthrew the Kanva rulers and established their dominance in the region.

Instruction

129

Who emerged victorious in the battle against Harisimha Deva, the ruler of the Karnata dynasty?

A

Firoz Tughlaq

B

Alauddin Khilji

C

Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

D

Iltutmish

E

Answer

C, Explanation: Karnata dynasty ruler Harisimha Deva was defeated by Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq in historical records.

Instruction

130

What was the capital of Bihar during the reign of the Tughlaq dynasty?

A

Patliputra

B

Rajgir

C

Sasaram

D

Bihar Sharif

E

Answer

D, Explanation: Bihar Sharif served as the capital of Bihar during the reign of the Tughlaq dynasty.